Where does it say mother
or child in verse 23?
Here's how I read those verses:
22: If someone attacks a pregnant woman in a way that causes her to miscarry, but the woman survives, then the attacker must pay her husband an amount to be determined by the judges.
23: But if the woman dies, the attacker shall be put to death.
As I've already pointed out, any injury that is sufficient to cause a woman to give birth prematurely is going to be sufficient to kill the fetus. It says, "If the woman gives birth but no harm follows." Even if the baby survives, it's almost certainly going to have some harm done to it by any assault sufficient to cause the mother to give birth prematurely. So how exactly does "If men fight, and hurt a woman with child, so that she gives birth prematurely" not cause any harm? But if we read the verses as I have shown, then it's clear that the "no harm" bit applies only to the woman.
In any case, since this is speaking about Jewish laws, it must be viewed in that context. And according to Jewish laws, life does not begin at conception, and it doesn't consider the developing fetus to be a full person. This only happens
at birth. SOURCE
"The principal biblical source for Jewish law on abortion is a passage in Exodus (Exodus 21:22-23) concerning a case in which two men are fighting and injure a pregnant woman, causing her to miscarry. The verse states that if no other harm is done, the person who caused the damage must pay compensatory damages, but if there is further harm, then he should pay with his life. The common rabbinic interpretation is that if the only harm that comes to the woman is the loss of the fetus, it is treated as a case of property damage — not murder.
The later rabbinic sources address the issue more directly, beginning with the Mishnah referenced above. Elsewhere, the Mishnah says that if a pregnant woman is sentenced to death, the execution can go forward provided she has not yet gone into labor, a further indication that Jewish law does not accord the fetus full human rights prior to birth."
So I don't see how you can use a religious text written for Jews by Jews to describe Jewish law to put forward a point of view that Jewish law itself doesn't hold.