DavidPT
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- Sep 26, 2016
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It is impossible debating with you. You cherry-pick what you respond to. When someone submits arguments that expose your hermeneutics you skip around them. Please address:
Daniel 9:2 says: “In the first year of his reign I Daniel understood by books the number of the years, whereof the word of the LORD came to Jeremiah the prophet, that he would accomplish seventy years in the desolations of Jerusalem. And I set my face unto the Lord God, to seek by prayer and supplication, with fasting, and sackcloth, and ashes.”
Are these seventy years linear, congruent and sequential?
The post you are addressing here wasn't even addressed to you, and that in this post you are addressing I'm simply trying to answer what Yesha asked of me in that post. After all, one can see the portion I quoted, and where I'm asked, "How are you concluding that a gap must exist?" So, maybe you are meaning another post of mine?
The way my mind typically reasons things is like such. If two ppl were debating what 2+2 equals, and that one of them is arguing that it equals 4, and the other is arguing it equals 5, obviously the former is already holding the trump card that can't be trumped. The former doesn't need to consider any of the latter's arguments, the latter needs to be considering the former's arguments. In my mind, the fact I'm convinced the entire 27th verse involves the 70th week, I'm already holding the trump card that indicates there has to be a gap somewhere in the 70 weeks, thus trumping any arguments insisting there are no gaps anywhere. In Daniel 9:24 there are 70 weeks involved. In verse 25 we are told about 69 of these weeks. So where are we told about the remaining week? Verse 27. Why does that verse indicate that someone confirms a covenant for one week? Maybe because that is what the entire verse is focusing on.
I see it being ludicrous that if this part---and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate---is not anything that is fulfilled during the 70th week, then what is it doing in this verse to begin with? What would anyone living during Christ's day, or even before His day, have made of that part? Would they have concluded that it is something that happens during the 70th week, or would they have concluded it is something that takes place after the 70th week?
A lot of you in here are basing a lot of your conclusions on hindsight that would have been unavailable to them at the time. Then you are automatically assuming you are correct about all these things, because in hindsight you see that Jerusalem and the temple was destroyed in 70 AD, so this part in verse 27 in question has to be meaning that, therefore this is not something that takes place during the 70th week, but takes place after the 70th week. Yet, Daniel 9:24 concerns 70 weeks, not after 70 weeks instead. Why then would verse 27 be involving something that takes place after the 70 weeks are finished? It wouldn't.
Now that I got that out of the way, I guess I can try and answer the question you asked. There would be no gaps in those 70 years, but what exactly does that prove if I am correct to conclude that verse 27 is meaning the 70th week, all of it, therefore proving there has to be a gap somewhere?
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