So, where the disciples “in Christ” or not? Did they experience the new birth? Basically, were they a new creature in Christ? Did they experience salvation like we have? Were they part of “the body of Christ”? Or, did they belong to a different spiritual entity?
Your insistence that there is two peoples of God is not as taught in the Bible, it does in fact oppose the teachings of Jesus and the Apostles.The little flock is in Christ (John 15:4-6), but they are not in the Body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12:13).
Because they are not in the Body of Christ, they have to wait to receive their salvation at the 2nd coming (Acts 3:19-21, 1 Peter 1:9, Romans 11:25-27)
Your insistence that there is two peoples of God is not as taught in the Bible, it does in fact oppose the teachings of Jesus and the Apostles.
Jesus was perfectly clear on this: John 17:20-23
I know that some Jews, a few actual descendants of Judah, will finally accept Jesus; the one they pierced. But we must carefully read Zechariah 12 and 13 in this matter.
Only a few families will survive to do this, as Zechariah 13:7-9 says. Two thirds will die outright and the remaining third will pass thru fire and only a holy seed of them will remain. Isaiah 6:11-13, Romans 9:27, +
Any ideas of a general redemption of the citizens of the Jewish State of Israel, is wrong and actually unbelievable given their continued rejection of Jesus for the last nearly 2000 years.
But the Body of Christ is not the same as the little flock. They are 2 separate groups of believers.
First of all, the New Testament was not written in KJV English. It was written in Greek. So, please stop acting as if the KJV is the final authority on scripture. It's not. It's an English translation. One of several good ones.You should understand Galatians 6:16 using the KJV instead of paraphrasing from another translation.
Now, the "and" is explicitly in the KJV so you don't have to sneak that in, unlike what you did for the previous debate about Acts 2:5.
But of course, I see you instead, quietly use a version that now drops the critical word and
I can certainly understand your motivation for doing the opposite for Galatians 6:16
I can't fathom how there can be a difference between being in Christ and being in the body of Christ. That makes no sense whatsoever to me.The little flock is in Christ (John 15:4-6), but they are not in the Body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12:13).
Because they are not in the Body of Christ, they have to wait to receive their salvation at the 2nd coming (Acts 3:19-21, 1 Peter 1:9, Romans 11:25-27)
Sorry, but God's Atonement is not limited. It has always been to all humanity. Your form of Dispensationalism is worse than the one you deny, you claim as existing some where out there.Jesus is here acknowledging that salvation would not be limited to the Jewish race. He was predicting that the Gospel would expand out and embrace the nations.
Sorry, but God's Atonement is not limited. It has always been to all humanity. Your form of Dispensationalism is worse than the one you deny, you claim as existing some where out there.
Yeah, that was a strange way for him to interpret your statement saying that "the Gospel would expand out and embrace the nations". That's the opposite of saying God's atonement is limited (to Israel).Who, apart from you, has said God's Atonement is limited? I totally reject your Dispensationalism in any form.
The Body of Christ is not Israel, so no (1 Timothy 5:8).
Yeah, that was a strange way for him to interpret your statement saying that "the Gospel would expand out and embrace the nations". That's the opposite of saying God's atonement is limited (to Israel).
It's almost as if he made up his mind to disagree with you not matter what you said.
The little flock is in Christ (John 15:4-6), but they are not in the Body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12:13).
Because they are not in the Body of Christ, they have to wait to receive their salvation at the 2nd coming (Acts 3:19-21, 1 Peter 1:9, Romans 11:25-27)
Paul was an Israelite of Israel who was in Christ and in the Body of Christ.
Which flock do you think he was in?
Classic dispensational thought here. What is the dispensational thinking being refuted?The destruction of the temple removed the last vestige of old covenant thinking that had attached itself to the Jewish Church. They were now finally separated from the old.
Your private opinion is not a fact. That is your own claim. 16 points are your own ideas, thoughts on why the chapter cannot say what is actually written in the chapter.Not so! You, or no Premiller, has had any rebuttal so far to any of the points in the Op. That alone is telling. That is a sufficient testimony that they are all compelling and water tight. Facts are stubborn things!
Your private opinion is not a fact. That is your own claim. 16 points are your own ideas, thoughts on why the chapter cannot say what is actually written in the chapter.
Your claim was the Atonement was limited to Israel and only after the first century went to other nations. That is dispensational thought.Who, apart from you, has said God's Atonement is limited? I totally reject your Dispensationalism in any form.
I am just trying to figure out from his interpretation what is this dispensational thought he is refuting.Yeah, that was a strange way for him to interpret your statement saying that "the Gospel would expand out and embrace the nations". That's the opposite of saying God's atonement is limited (to Israel).
It's almost as if he made up his mind to disagree with you no matter what you said.
I am not avoiding your opinion. I am pointing them out as your opinions.Your ongoing avoidance just reinforces my thesis. It shows the reader how bereft Premil is of biblical validity.