2 Thess 2:12 teaches eternal security

[FreeGrace2]

2 Thess 2:12 - and so that all will be condemned who have not believed the truth but have delighted in wickedness.

This verse states in very clear and plain words that condemnation is for everyone who has not believed the gospel.

The words "have not believed" is in the aorist tense; meaning believed in a point of time. Past time.

The Arminian claim that one must continue to believe in order to avoid hell (losing salvation) is refuted by this verse. If that claim were true, Paul would have written it this way:

"so that all will be condemned who do not continue to believe the truth".

So the aorist tense once again refutes the claim of Arminians.

In fact, 2 Thess 2:12 parallels both of these verses:

John 5:24 - “Very truly I tell you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be judged but has crossed over from death to life.

John 10:28 - I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand.

Here's how: Jn 5:24 says those who believe "will not be judged/condemned".

John 10:28 says recipients "of eternal life (believers) shall never perish".

It will be interesting and instructive to see how Arminians, if any do, will respond to this thread.

 

[bcbsr]

2 Thess 2:12 - and so that all will be condemned who have not believed the truth but have delighted in wickedness.

This verse states in very clear and plain words that condemnation is for everyone who has not believed the gospel.

The words "have not believed" is in the aorist tense; meaning believed in a point of time. Past time.

The Arminian claim that one must continue to believe in order to avoid hell (losing salvation) is refuted by this verse. If that claim were true, Paul would have written it this way:

"so that all will be condemned who do not continue to believe the truth".

So the aorist tense once again refutes the claim of Arminians.

In fact, 2 Thess 2:12 parallels both of these verses:

John 5:24 - “Very truly I tell you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be judged but has crossed over from death to life.

John 10:28 - I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand.

Here's how: Jn 5:24 says those who believe "will not be judged/condemned".

John 10:28 says recipients "of eternal life (believers) shall never perish".

It will be interesting and instructive to see how Arminians, if any do, will respond to this thread.

They're the same thing. To believe at a point in time inevitably results in believing for the rest of your life. For John states in 1John 2:19:

They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us.
For if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us;
but their going showed that none of them belonged to us.

And by the way, that's the Calvinist viewpoint. I don't know what viewpoint you're advocating, but apparently it's neither Calvinists nor Arminian.

Or if you like to see salvation conditioned up belief in the present tense rather than the aorist, consider 1John 5:13 "These things I have written to you who believe (present tense) in the name of the Son of God, that you may know that you have eternal life, and that you may continue to believe in the name of the Son of God."

 

[Johnny4ChristJesus]

2 Thess 2:12 - and so that all will be condemned who have not believed the truth but have delighted in wickedness.

This verse states in very clear and plain words that condemnation is for everyone who has not believed the gospel.

The words "have not believed" is in the aorist tense; meaning believed in a point of time. Past time.

The Arminian claim that one must continue to believe in order to avoid hell (losing salvation) is refuted by this verse. If that claim were true, Paul would have written it this way:

"so that all will be condemned who do not continue to believe the truth".

So the aorist tense once again refutes the claim of Arminians.

In fact, 2 Thess 2:12 parallels both of these verses:

John 5:24 - “Very truly I tell you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be judged but has crossed over from death to life.

John 10:28 - I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand.

Here's how: Jn 5:24 says those who believe "will not be judged/condemned".

John 10:28 says recipients "of eternal life (believers) shall never perish".

It will be interesting and instructive to see how Arminians, if any do,d to this thread.

I don't claim to be in either camp. I just claim to be a Bible-believing Christian. But, just sticking to 2 Thes 2:12, if the instant before Jesus comes back, someone believed, they will be saved, right? So, why couldn't that verse mean those who believed at the time of their last chance in this life--whether that is the moment before Jesus comes back or just before they take their last breath in this life? Each case would still be before The Judgment Day and therefore would still be past tense.

I agree with the other person who said if someone really believes they continue to believe; but, there are some who claim to and really don't and it seems only time (and trials, tribulation, and persecution) divulges the wheat from the tares or the stoney ground from the good soil.

 

[vinsight4u]

/nvm

 

[FreeGrace2]

They're the same thing. To believe at a point in time inevitably results in believing for the rest of your life. For John states in 1John 2:19:

They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us.
For if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us;
but their going showed that none of them belonged to us.

This verse says nothing about believing for the rest of one's life. And the aorist tense used in 2 Thess 2:12 plus many other verses says nothing about length of time one may believe.

Also, Jesus couldn't have been more clear in Luke 8:13 about some who "believe for a while". That cannot mean "for the rest of their life".

And by the way, that's the Calvinist viewpoint. I don't know what viewpoint you're advocating, but apparently it's neither Calvinists nor Arminian.

Correct. Most of what I believe lines up with the "free grace" view.

Or if you like to see salvation conditioned up belief in the present tense rather than the aorist, consider 1John 5:13

"These things I have written to you who believe (present tense) in the name of the Son of God, that you may know that you have eternal life, and that you may continue to believe in the name of the Son of God."

I see salvation from 3 tenses:

1. past tense: we were saved from the penalty of sin. Justification.
2. present tense: we are being saved from the power of sin. Sanctification.
3. future tense: we will be saved from the presence of sin. Glorification.

 

[FreeGrace2]

I don't claim to be in either camp.

Me neither.

I just claim to be a Bible-believing Christian.

As do I.

But, just sticking to 2 Thes 2:12, if the instant before Jesus comes back, someone believed, they will be saved, right?

Right.

So, why couldn't that verse mean those who believed at the time of their last chance in this life--whether that is the moment before Jesus comes back or just before they take their last breath in this life?

The verse means just what it says. That those who have believed (in a point in time), they will not be condemned.

This verse refutes the Arminians who claim that one must continue to believe in order to continue to be saved.

[/QUOTE] Each case would still be before The Judgment Day and therefore would still be past tense.[/QUOTE]
Every action that has occurred is now in the past. I'm not sure of your point.

I agree with the other person who said if someone really believes they continue to believe;

Luke 8:13 indicates otherwise.

but, there are some who claim to and really don't and it seems only time (and trials, tribulation, and persecution) divulges the wheat from the tares or the stoney ground from the good soil.

That is the Calvinist view. I believe what Jesus said in Luke 8:13. Some believe for a while and then fall away from their faith because of trials and tribulations.

 

[bcbsr]

Most of what I believe lines up with the "free grace" view.

Free Grace Theology holds a number of hypotheses, one if which is that there is not necessarily any correlation between a person behavior and his salvation status. That being contrary to many verses, like 1John 3:9,10 "No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. This is how we distinguish who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother."

Inherent in Free Grace Theology is the denial of the power of being born of God.

For a critique on Free Grace Theology see my article on Free Grace Theology vs the Bible.

 

[FreeGrace2]

Free Grace Theology holds a number of hypotheses, one if which is that there is not necessarily any correlation between a person behavior and his salvation status. That being contrary to many verses, like 1John 3:9,10 "No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. This is how we distinguish who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother."

This "hypothesis" is not contrary to 1 Jn 3:9 at all. If one takes v.9 as literal, then everyone who has been born again will never sin again. Do you really believe that?

This would amount to sinless perfection post salvation, and there just too many verses that are very clear that born again people continue to sin.

So there has to be a better explanation for the verse. And there is one.

v.9 speaks of the new nature, per 2 Cor 5:17. The believer has 2 natures; the human nature, from which we sin, and the born again new nature. And Paul argues that we choose which nature to function from. Rom 6,7 and Gal 5:17.

So, from the new, born again nature, the believer cannot sin. But from the human, sin nature, they still sin.

The key is the indwelling Holy Spirit. Paul makes it clear that believers can grieve (Eph 4:30) and quench (1 Thess 5:19) the Holy Spirit. This shows our continued ability to sin. Paul also commands believers to be filled with the Spirit (Eph 5:18) and to walk by the Spirit (Gal 5:16).

So, when a believer is filled with and walking by the Spirit, they function from the new born again nature, and cannot sin.

But, when a believer grieves or quenches the Spirit, they function from their human sinful nature.

Inherent in Free Grace Theology is the denial of the power of being born of God.

Absolutely false. Just re-read my explanation about 1 Jn 3:9.

For a critique on Free Grace Theology see my article on Free Grace Theology vs the Bible.

Boring. And quite a bit of false statements.

I've never seen or read anything from FG theology that treats the Christian life and spiritual growth as casually as "optional". So that's your made up word as it doesn't come from FG theology.

I challenge you to cite any FG source where that word is used.

The point is that salvation is NOT dependent upon one's lifestyle or spiritual growth.

FG theology places heavy emphasis on the need for spiritual growth and holy living.

The difference from the so-called Lordship Salvation is that neither spiritual growth nor holy living have any part in getting saved.

Are you reformed or Arminian?

 

[bcbsr]

This "hypothesis" is not contrary to 1 Jn 3:9 at all. If one takes v.9 as literal, then everyone who has been born again will never sin again.

Wrong! If you take it literally in light of Greek grammar, John is speaking of one's lifestyle in contrast to aorist point in time events which are uncharacteristic of one's lifestyle.

For a complete exegetical study on 1John see my Sunday School Lessons on 1John.

v.9 speaks of the new nature, per 2 Cor 5:17. The believer has 2 natures; the human nature, from which we sin, and the born again new nature.

Wrong! John is speaking of those who have been "born of God", and contrasting their behavior with those who are "children of the devil" in order to identify them publicly. Note the wording:

No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother.

But as for sinless perfection, isn't your interpretation that children of God have attained sinless perfection? Are you a child of God and as such have attained sinless perfection? Or are you claiming to be a child of the devil?

1John 5:1 Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God

I believe that Jesus is the Christ. Therefore I am born of God. What about you?

 

[Johnny4ChristJesus]

Me neither.


As do I.


Right.


The verse means just what it says. That those who have believed (in a point in time), they will not be condemned.

This verse refutes the Arminians who claim that one must continue to believe in order to continue to be saved.

Each case would still be before The Judgment Day and therefore would still be past tense.[/QUOTE]
Every action that has occurred is now in the past. I'm not sure of your point.


Luke 8:13 indicates otherwise.


That is the Calvinist view. I believe what Jesus said in Luke 8:13. Some believe for a while and then fall away from their faith because of trials and tribulations.[/QUOTE]

I agree with you regarding Luke 8:13. I think I just didn't explain what I believe correctly. I also believe what Jesus said in many other places (Matt 7:21-27, Rev 2 & 3). All point to people walking the road for a while and some falling away. Even Paul talked about that.

So, then when you refer to believed at "a point in time," you really mean that they believed at "the point in time" when God decides their window of opportunity has closed. Since the latter half of Romans 1 and 2 Thes 2:10-11 both suggest that some people exhaust their chances before the end of their life in this world. Scripture, then, seems to suggest four outcomes: (1) a life ends in this world with the person believing, (2) Jesus comes back and the believing person is lifted up after the dead in Christ, (3) someone believed for only a season or less and will not be saved (For generalization purposes, I am assuming this includes the person who claims belief, but doesn't do what Jesus says maybe because of the weeds), or (4) someone never believed and was turned over to a debased mind and/or strong delusion that they would believe the lie and be damned. Did I miss any groups?

 

[FreeGrace2]

FreeGrace2 said: ↑
This "hypothesis" is not contrary to 1 Jn 3:9 at all. If one takes v.9 as literal, then everyone who has been born again will never sin again.

Wrong! If you take it literally in light of Greek grammar, John is speaking of one's lifestyle in contrast to aorist point in time events which are uncharacteristic of one's lifestyle.

For a complete exegetical study on 1John see my Sunday School Lessons on 1John.
Wrong! John is speaking of those who have been "born of God", and contrasting their behavior with those who are "children of the devil" in order to identify them publicly. Note the wording:

No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother.

Well, so much for your "exegetical" skills. In v.10 the words "of God" do not occur in the original. Check it out. Big difference.

Now, instead of just claiming "wrong", please address my post point by point and prove that I'm wrong. The claim of "wrong" is an opinion, not fact.

But as for sinless perfection, isn't your interpretation that children of God have attained sinless perfection?

Of course not! How could you come to that weird conclusion from what I posted?

Are you a child of God and as such have attained sinless perfection?

yes, and no.

Or are you claiming to be a child of the devil?

No

1John 5:1 Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God

I believe that Jesus is the Christ. Therefore I am born of God. What about you?

Same here. Do you still sin?

 

[FreeGrace2]

I agree with you regarding Luke 8:13. I think I just didn't explain what I believe correctly. I also believe what Jesus said in many other places (Matt 7:21-27, Rev 2 & 3). All point to people walking the road for a while and some falling away. Even Paul talked about that.

So, then when you refer to believed at "a point in time," you really mean that they believed at "the point in time" when God decides their window of opportunity has closed.

No, I don't mean anything about "their window of opportunity has closed". I don't even know what that means. When I say that someone believed in a point in time, that refers to the MOMENT they put their faith in Christ and are saved.

Do you people are saved at a specific point in time, or, like Catholics, do you believe that salvation is process over time?

Since the latter half of Romans 1 and 2 Thes 2:10-11 both suggest that some people exhaust their chances before the end of their life in this world.

I don't see any evidence of "exhausting chances". Until one dies, they have an opportunity to believe and receive eternal life.

Please provide evidence that one can exhaust their chances before the end of their life.

Scripture, then, seems to suggest four outcomes: (1) a life ends in this world with the person believing, (2) Jesus comes back and the believing person is lifted up after the dead in Christ, (3) someone believed for only a season or less and will not be saved (For generalization purposes, I am assuming this includes the person who claims belief, but doesn't do what Jesus says maybe because of the weeds), or (4) someone never believed and was turned over to a debased mind and/or strong delusion that they would believe the lie and be damned. Did I miss any groups?[/QUOTE]
I don't see any of this as "outcomes" or "groups".

#1 is about a person who believes.
#2 is a statement about Christ's return and living believers are caught up with the Lord.
#3 is unbiblical, because there are no verses that claim that one who believes "for a while" is not saved.
#4 describes all unbelievers.

But, regarding your "outcomes", there are only 2:
1. a person puts their faith in Christ for salvation, and receives eternal life. John 5:24, 6:47, 1 Tim 1:16, and 1 John 5:13. The result is that they shall never perish. John 10:28

2. a person never puts their faith in Christ for salvation, and will be thrown into the lake of fire at the Great White Throne judgment. Rev 20:15

These 2 "outcomes" prove that regardless of how long a person may believe in Christ, they STILL have eternal life and shall NOT ever perish.

If you can find any verse that says otherwise, congratulations! You just proved the Bible to be contradictory.

 

[bcbsr]

FreeGrace2 said: ↑
This "hypothesis" is not contrary to 1 Jn 3:9 at all. If one takes v.9 as literal, then everyone who has been born again will never sin again.

Well, so much for your "exegetical" skills. In v.10 the words "of God" do not occur in the original. Check it out. Big difference.

Now, instead of just claiming "wrong", please address my post point by point and prove that I'm wrong. The claim of "wrong" is an opinion, not fact.


Of course not! How could you come to that weird conclusion from what I posted?


yes, and no.


No


Same here. Do you still sin?

Your claim is that a person who is born of God is not necessarily a child of God! Exegetical skills? Read the context.

"Dear children, do not let anyone lead you astray. He who does what is right is righteous, just as he is righteous. He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil’s work. No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother."

Clearly children of God are those born of God.

"Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God." John 1:12,13

Are you saying that if you accept that those born of God are children of God it would destroy your Free Grace theology?

 

[Johnny4ChristJesus]

No, I don't mean anything about "their window of opportunity has closed". I don't even know what that means. When I say that someone believed in a point in time, that refers to the MOMENT they put their faith in Christ and are saved.

Do you people are saved at a specific point in time, or, like Catholics, do you believe that salvation is process over time?


I don't see any evidence of "exhausting chances". Until one dies, they have an opportunity to believe and receive eternal life.

Please provide evidence that one can exhaust their chances before the end of their life.

Scripture, then, seems to suggest four outcomes: (1) a life ends in this world with the person believing, (2) Jesus comes back and the believing person is lifted up after the dead in Christ, (3) someone believed for only a season or less and will not be saved (For generalization purposes, I am assuming this includes the person who claims belief, but doesn't do what Jesus says maybe because of the weeds), or (4) someone never believed and was turned over to a debased mind and/or strong delusion that they would believe the lie and be damned. Did I miss any groups?

I don't see any of this as "outcomes" or "groups".

#1 is about a person who believes.
#2 is a statement about Christ's return and living believers are caught up with the Lord.
#3 is unbiblical, because there are no verses that claim that one who believes "for a while" is not saved.
#4 describes all unbelievers.

But, regarding your "outcomes", there are only 2:
1. a person puts their faith in Christ for salvation, and receives eternal life. John 5:24, 6:47, 1 Tim 1:16, and 1 John 5:13. The result is that they shall never perish. John 10:28

2. a person never puts their faith in Christ for salvation, and will be thrown into the lake of fire at the Great White Throne judgment. Rev 20:15

These 2 "outcomes" prove that regardless of how long a person may believe in Christ, they STILL have eternal life and shall NOT ever perish.

If you can find any verse that says otherwise, congratulations! You just proved the Bible to be contradictory. [/QUOTE]

Finding verses that contradict your understanding of what the Scriptures mean does not mean the Bible contradicts itself. It simply means you haven't reached the correct understanding yet. Which would be normal, if we, like Paul, are still seeing through a glass dimly.

#3 above is not unBiblical. It depends what we are referring to as "having belief". Jesus Himself said this happens.

 

[FreeGrace2]

Your claim is that a person who is born of God is not necessarily a child of God!

No, that is not my claim. Not even close. Apparently you just aren't following my posts.

Exegetical skills? Read the context.

"Dear children, do not let anyone lead you astray. He who does what is right is righteous, just as he is righteous. He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil’s work. No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother."

Clearly children of God are those born of God.

My point is about v.10 only. I made a mistake about what words are not in the original. I had said the words "of God" do NOT occur in the original. What isn't in the original is "a child".

ESV - By this it is evident who are the children of God, and who are the children of the devil: whoever does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor is the one who does not love his brother.

NASB - By this the children of God and the children of the devil are obvious: anyone who does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor the one who does not love his brother.

Berean Literal Bible - Through this, the children of God and the children of the devil are manifest: anyone not practicing righteousness is not of God, and also the one not loving his brother.

Even the KJV got it right - In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.

This is not to say they aren't believers, but their behavior is "not of God". That's the meaning and that's my point.

"Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God." John 1:12,13

Are you saying that if you accept that those born of God are children of God it would destroy your Free Grace theology?

Doesn't destroy my theology at all. Of course everyone born again (of God) are children of God.

But 1 John 3:10 doesn't say "a child of God".

The verse is about the behavior that isn't "of God".

Back to my question; do you sin?

 

[FreeGrace2]

I said this:
"I don't see any of this as "outcomes" or "groups".

#1 is about a person who believes.
#2 is a statement about Christ's return and living believers are caught up with the Lord.
#3 is unbiblical, because there are no verses that claim that one who believes "for a while" is not saved.
#4 describes all unbelievers.

But, regarding your "outcomes", there are only 2:
1. a person puts their faith in Christ for salvation, and receives eternal life. John 5:24, 6:47, 1 Tim 1:16, and 1 John 5:13. The result is that they shall never perish. John 10:28

2. a person never puts their faith in Christ for salvation, and will be thrown into the lake of fire at the Great White Throne judgment. Rev 20:15

These 2 "outcomes" prove that regardless of how long a person may believe in Christ, they STILL have eternal life and shall NOT ever perish.

If you can find any verse that says otherwise, congratulations! You just proved the Bible to be contradictory. "

Finding verses that contradict your understanding of what the Scriptures mean does not mean the Bible contradicts itself.

No, my point is that it is YOUR understanding of some verses that DO contradict other verses.

It simply means you haven't reached the correct understanding yet.

I highly recommend that you actually deal with my points above. Take them one at a time, and explain how or why they are incorrect. That's how to refute someone.

Prove me wrong. So far, all I've seen is your opinion.

#3 above is not unBiblical. It depends what we are referring to as "having belief". Jesus Himself said this happens.

Correction. Jesus said NOTHING about one who only believes for a while is only saved for a while. That was my point. And that claim (opinion) is unbiblical.

Or prove me wrong by quoting any verse that says one is saved only as long as they believe. And Luke 8:13 doesn't say anything like that.

 

[Dan the deacon]

Armenian and Calvinism are both wrong. We are not fully saved here on earth. We enter salvation here and finish it in the afterlife.

 

[FreeGrace2]

Armenian and Calvinism are both wrong. We are not fully saved here on earth. We enter salvation here and finish it in the afterlife.

Are you referring to the present tense aspect of salvation?

 

[bcbsr]

My point is about v.10 only. I made a mistake about what words are not in the original. I had said the words "of God" do NOT occur in the original. What isn't in the original is "a child".

Don't see how that has any impact on my comment. My comment stands. But let's take your proposition which is supposed to disprove my point. Your claim is that the original does not have the term "a child". What does that matter? Is uses the plural "children of God". 1John 1:10 speaks of how to distinguish children of God from children of the devil. It says you can do so based up their characteristic behavior.

Here's a question for you. John states, "This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are" So from what John says how is John saying you can make that distinction?

I understand your attempt to grasp at straws and attempting to misconstrue what John is clearly saying. Because it destroys a significant premise of Free Grace Theology.

Of course everyone born again (of God) are children of God.

Well then back to verse 9, now that you finally admit that. What is true of those born of God? "No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God." Which again destroys a premise of Free Grace theology that there's not necessarily any correlation between a person's behavior an his salvation status.

 

[FreeGrace2]

1John 1:10 speaks of how to distinguish children of God from children of the devil. It says you can do so based up their characteristic behavior.

Jesus called Peter Satan in Mark 8:33. Was He being literal then? Of course not. In the same way, John was not being literal about actual children, but HOW children behave.

And when believers act like unbelievers, they are acting like children of the devil. How is that not clear?

Here's a question for you. John states, "This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are" So from what John says how is John saying you can make that distinction?

See my answer above.

I understand your attempt to grasp at straws and attempting to misconstrue what John is clearly saying. Because it destroys a significant premise of Free Grace Theology.

Nonsense. I've given a sensible answer. And you haven't even tried to challenge what I explained about 1 John 3:9.

And again, do you still sin? Why are you not answering? What is there to hide?

Well then back to verse 9, now that you finally admit that.

What have I "admitted"?

What is true of those born of God? "No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God." Which again destroys a premise of Free Grace theology that there's not necessarily any correlation between a person's behavior an his salvation status.

So, again, do you still sin, or not? Based on 1 John 3:9.