That is absolutely false. Many Premils would acknowledge the same.
Both passages are contained within highly symbolic books, which is undeniable. They are not written in a clear and straightforward way. To claim otherwise is ridiculous. It makes no sense to not acknowledge that the fact that those passages are within books that undeniably contain a lot of symbolism has to be taken into consideration. And since that is the case it has to be considered whether or not all of the text is literal, all symbolic or a mixture of the two. Those passages are anything but clear and straightforward as you imagine them to be. Interpreting the passages completely literally results in contradicting other scripture.
What I see being a main point involving Zechariah 14, though most Premils are likely going to disagree, that chapter is showing a transition of the church spiritually into that of the new Jerusalem physically. The Jerusalem being surrounded in verse 2 is not even remotely meaning the Jerusalem that was destroyed in 70 AD, it is meaning the church, it is meaning during great trib. The Jerusalem in verse 11 is meaning the new Jerusalem physically, after it has come down from God out of heaven.
How can one ignore clues in the text that give us the timing? Such as.
Zechariah 14:9 And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one.
How can this verse be true before the following verse is true first?
Revelation 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.
How can Zechariah 14:9 already be true during when the following is true at the time?
2 Thessalonians 2:4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
If Zechariah 14:9 is true when 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is true, that equals 2 beings total, not 1 like Zechariah 14:9 indicates.
Then there is this verse below, clearly and undeniably meaning after Zechariah 14:2 has already been fulfilled.
Zechariah 14:11 And men shall dwell in it, and there shall be no more utter destruction; but Jerusalem shall be safely inhabited.
Obviously, as of verse 2 Jerusalem is not being safely inhabited at the time.
Revelation 11:2 But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.
Obviously, as of this verse Jerusalem is not being safely inhabited. When will Jerusalem be safely inhabited? That's simple. It will be once the following occurs.
Revelation 21:1 And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.
2 And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband.
Amils then might argue, and maybe rightfully so, if assuming Premil, what about Revelation 20:7-9 in relation to what is recorded in Zechariah 14:11? If Jerusalem is safely inhabited, why is it then being come against in Revelation 20:7-9?
It does say fire comes down from God out of heaven and devours them, which might mean it's still safely inhabited, regardless of the rebellion in the end, because God nips their attack in the bud before it reaches epic proportions.
But even if that is not a reasonable explanation, and maybe it isn't, still Zechariah 14:11 can't be meaning a time prior to the NHNE since there is no Jerusalem safely inhabited during this time, and besides, one can't apply Zechariah 14:11 to the church in a spiritual sense either involving this age because of what the preceding verse records, thus this involves something that is regionally located in the earth.
Zechariah 14:10 All the land shall be turned as a plain from Geba to Rimmon south of Jerusalem: and it shall be lifted up, and inhabited in her place, from Benjamin's gate unto the place of the first gate, unto the corner gate, and from the tower of Hananeel unto the king's winepresses.
This part---south of Jerusalem--proves that this is meaning regionally. All of that verse does, actually. The NJ has to be geographically located somewhere since it is not meaning the entire planet , the same way the garden of Eden was not meaning the entire planet and that is it had a geographic location.