What does this august body think of the inter-relationship, if there is one, between the seige of Constantinople in 1204 and the Massacre of the Latins in 1182?
Was the massacre one of the causes of the Seige? Or were they unrelated? I mean I know they were both demonstrative of the lack of love between East and West, but I have recently read that it may be that the reason for 1204 WAS 1182. Seems a bit myopic to me, but what do I know?
Was the massacre one of the causes of the Seige? Or were they unrelated? I mean I know they were both demonstrative of the lack of love between East and West, but I have recently read that it may be that the reason for 1204 WAS 1182. Seems a bit myopic to me, but what do I know?