Union With Christ

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I added something to the post:

In both situations we have someone who needs justice but that justice comes a long time after it was needed. Both the woman and the saints had to wait before being avenged but the difference is the unjust judge didn't feel the woman needed avenged and only gave in after she wore him out. God isn't hesitating because he doesn't care, but only because that vengeance is appointed for a certain time.



The reason for why the one asking/praying for vengeance is different in the two situations. God is just but the saints must wait because God's vengeance comes in the future. The unjust Judge was unjust because he didn't regard God or man and just didn't want to help the woman.

God is merely compared to an unjust judge because justice has to be waited for but for different reasons.

Luke 18 isn’t the only parable that language is used to describe God as a difficult task master or someone who is unjust.

Matthew 25:24 Finally, the servant who had received the one talent came and said, 'Master, I knew that you are a hard man, reaping where you have not sown, and gathering where you have not scattered seed.
 
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GraceBro

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In John 10:34 Jesus quoted Psalms 82:6 and says, “ye are gods”. So what is your opinion on this? Are human beings actually gods?

I have heard the claim that this passage means that we are judges but I’m not buying that argument as it doesn’t seem to fit the context of the passage.

John 10:34

Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
The passage was about Jesus making an accusation against the Jews. This half-hour teaching may help. Grace and peace.
Living God Ministries - You are gods?
 
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Mark Quayle

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I think you need to clarify who the "he" is in your question.
In a previous post, someone said that Christ (if I remember right --maybe it was David they said.) had said, "ye are gods". I don't know of anywhere that God actually says that to humans, before the writing of Psalm 82
 
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ewq1938

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Luke 18 isn’t the only parable that language is used to describe God as a difficult task master or someone who is unjust.

Being difficult is different than being unjust. God is just.

Heb 6:10 For God is not unjust, to forget your work and the labor of love which you showed to His name, ministering to the saints, and now are ministering.
 
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Union With Christ

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ewq1938

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In a previous post, someone said that Christ (if I remember right --maybe it was David they said.) had said, "ye are gods". I don't know of anywhere that God actually says that to humans, before the writing of Psalm 82


God the Father never said it. David said it, then later Christ quoted David. So, it's a statement David said.
 
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Union With Christ

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Being difficult is different than being unjust. God is just.

Heb 6:10 For God is not unjust, to forget your work and the labor of love which you showed to His name, ministering to the saints, and now are ministering.

That is the whole reason the unjust judge was called unjust in Luke 18 because he was difficult.
 
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ewq1938

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That is the whole reason the unjust judge was called unjust in Luke 18 because he was difficult.

It's not that, he was not a good person, unjust means unrighteous. He didn't care about God or man.He was a cold hearted person who didn't care about anyone. That's not true of God.

Why didn't the judge avenge the woman the first time? He didn't care about her. He only gave in because she was bothering him a lot.

Why doesn't God avenge the Godly saints that have been mistreated and murdered already? It's not because he doesn't care, he has simply set a time for it to happen in the future.
 
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sparow

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In John 10:34 Jesus quoted Psalms 82:6 and says, “ye are gods”. So what is your opinion on this? Are human beings actually gods?

I have heard the claim that this passage means that we are judges but I’m not buying that argument as it doesn’t seem to fit the context of the passage.

John 10:34

Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

The Greek word could mean divinity or magistrate;
 
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ewq1938

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Psa 82:2 How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.

unjustly definition:

H5766
עֹלָה עוֹלָה עַוְלָה עָוֶל עֶוֶל
‛evel ‛âvel ‛avlâh ‛ôlâh ‛ôlâh
eh'-vel, aw'-vel, av-law', o-law', o-law'
From H5765; (moral) evil: - iniquity, perverseness, unjust (-ly), unrighteousness (-ly), wicked (-ness).
Total KJV occurrences: 53

Is God a morally evil judge? Of course not.

Psa 82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

So if David is speaking something about God that is false, why accept what he says about God's people being gods?

Psa 82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

Either David is just plain wrong here or he is not being serious. The next verse contradicts any literal idea of these people being gods:

Psa 82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.
Psa 82:7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.
 
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Hmm is not Satan the "GOD" of this world? Not my word. So He judgeth among the gods.

He said we are gods and all of you are children of the most high. Is it not written "Do you not know that we shall judge angels? How much more, things that pertain to this life?"

Lol there is only one God.. three in one. We are made in His image. We are like no other in all of creation.
 
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swainkas

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this is considered to be the scripture Jesus is referring to:

(Psa 82:6) I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.
(Psa 82:7) But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.

i think Jesus was saying that Psa 82:7 applied to the Jews (John 10:24) that were about to stone Him in John 10:31


I've always thought Jesus was being sarcastic when He said they were gods. I mean look, He could have just quoted the second half of verse 6 and claimed He was in full rights to being the Son of God, but He didn't. No, He chose to quote the fist half of the verse, which is clearly preposterous. We are in no way gods or Gods. Jesus knew that and only quoted the verse because He knew they were about to stone Him. He threw them off His scent for His time had not yet come, nor was the method of His death to be via stoning.
 
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disciple Clint

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In John 10:34 Jesus quoted Psalms 82:6 and says, “ye are gods”. So what is your opinion on this? Are human beings actually gods?

I have heard the claim that this passage means that we are judges but I’m not buying that argument as it doesn’t seem to fit the context of the passage.

John 10:34

Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
John 10:34 - Meaning and Commentary on Bible Verse
I said, ye are gods
?
which is spoken to civil magistrates, so called, because of their authority and power; and because they do, in some sort, represent the divine majesty, in the government of nations and kingdoms. Many of the Jewish writers, by "gods", understand "the angels". The Targum paraphrases the words thus:



``I said ye are accounted as angels, as the angels on high, all of you;''


and to this sense some of their commentators interpret it. Jarchi's gloss is, ye are gods; that is, angels; for when I gave the law to you, it was on this account, that the angel of death might not any more rule over you: the note of Aben Ezra is, "and the children of the Most High": as angels; and the sense is, your soul is as the soul of angels: hence the F24 Jew charges Christ with seeking refuge in words, that will not profit, or be any help to him, when he cites these words, showing that magistrates are called gods, when the sense is only, that they are like to the angels in respect of their souls: but let it be observed, that it is not said, "ye are as gods", as in ( Genesis 3:5 ) , but "ye are gods"; not like unto them only, but are in some sense gods; and besides, to say that they are like to angels, with respect to their souls, which come from above, is to say no more of the judges of the earth, than what may be said of every man: to which may be added, that this objector himself owns, that judges are called (Myhla) , "gods", as in ( Exodus 22:9 ) ; the cause of both parties shall come before (Myhla) , "the judges"; and that even the word is used in this sense in this very psalm, from whence these words are cited, ( Psalms 82:1 ) , "he judgeth among" (Myhla) , "the gods"; and both Kimchi and Ben Melech interpret this text itself in the same way, and observe, that judges are called gods, when they judge truly and aright: all which is sufficient to justify our Lord in the citation of this passage, and the use he makes of it
 
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Bond-servant of Christ

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I’ve heard this argument before but I don’t agree with it.

If you read the context of John 10:34 Jesus was replying because they were upset that he claimed to be the son of God. The word judges doesn’t fit in that context. It wouldn’t be a valid comparison on Jesus part. Here Jesus was clearly stating that he was a God and asking them why they were upset because they are also gods.

you must be a follower of the heretics, Kenneth Copeland and Kenneth Hagin, both who taught this rank heresy!
 
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Bond-servant of Christ

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John 10:34 - Meaning and Commentary on Bible Verse
I said, ye are gods?
which is spoken to civil magistrates, so called, because of their authority and power; and because they do, in some sort, represent the divine majesty, in the government of nations and kingdoms. Many of the Jewish writers, by "gods", understand "the angels". The Targum paraphrases the words thus:



``I said ye are accounted as angels, as the angels on high, all of you;''


and to this sense some of their commentators interpret it. Jarchi's gloss is, ye are gods; that is, angels; for when I gave the law to you, it was on this account, that the angel of death might not any more rule over you: the note of Aben Ezra is, "and the children of the Most High": as angels; and the sense is, your soul is as the soul of angels: hence the F24 Jew charges Christ with seeking refuge in words, that will not profit, or be any help to him, when he cites these words, showing that magistrates are called gods, when the sense is only, that they are like to the angels in respect of their souls: but let it be observed, that it is not said, "ye are as gods", as in ( Genesis 3:5 ) , but "ye are gods"; not like unto them only, but are in some sense gods; and besides, to say that they are like to angels, with respect to their souls, which come from above, is to say no more of the judges of the earth, than what may be said of every man: to which may be added, that this objector himself owns, that judges are called (Myhla) , "gods", as in ( Exodus 22:9 ) ; the cause of both parties shall come before (Myhla) , "the judges"; and that even the word is used in this sense in this very psalm, from whence these words are cited, ( Psalms 82:1 ) , "he judgeth among" (Myhla) , "the gods"; and both Kimchi and Ben Melech interpret this text itself in the same way, and observe, that judges are called gods, when they judge truly and aright: all which is sufficient to justify our Lord in the citation of this passage, and the use he makes of it

so, is Jesus telling these unbelieving Jews, who wanted to murder Him (verse 31) that they were angels?
 
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Bond-servant of Christ

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I don't know of anywhere that God actually says that to humans, before the writing of Psalm 82

Of course the Bible does teach that men who are "jugdes" working on behalf of God, were in this capicity, "elohim". As I have shown at the start of this thread
 
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Bond-servant of Christ

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Hmm is not Satan the "GOD" of this world?

Most centainly NOT. You have used GOD, which is IMPOSSIBLE, the Bible only means this in the lowest sense of the word! The correct term for the devil is, Βεεζεβούλ (Beelzebub), which actually means, "lord of flies", with the root meaning of word, "dung"! As Easton's Bible dictionary well puts it: "It is probably the same as Baalzebub (q.v.), the god of Ekron, meaning "the lord of flies," or, as others think, "the lord of dung," or "the dung-god.""
 
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