The account doesn't refer to the second coming till Matthew 24:36 But of that day and hour no one knows, no, not the angels of heaven, but My Father only.
How do you figure that though? In Matthew 24:30 it was already referring to the 2nd coming. That is the context at this point. Verse 32 is part of the same context involving verse 30, which makes verse 34 part of that same context as well. Starting from verse 29 to the end of the chapter, the context involves what leads up the 2nd coming, the 2nd coming itself, and what happens after the 2nd coming. None of those verses involve anything having to do with first century events.
Matthew 24:32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:
33 So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.
The text says---when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors.
What is near, even at the doors? Let's consult Luke 21 for a moment.
Luke 21:29 And he spake to them a parable; Behold the fig tree, and all the trees;
30 When they now shoot forth, ye see and know of your own selves that summer is now nigh at hand.
31 So likewise ye, when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the kingdom of God is nigh at hand.
According to verse 31, Matthew 24:33 should be understood like such---So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that the kingdom of God is near, even at the doors.
Let's consider Luke 19 for a moment as well.
Luke 19:11 And as they heard these things, he added and spake a parable, because he was nigh to Jerusalem, and because they thought that the kingdom of God should immediately appear.
12 He said therefore, A certain nobleman went into a far country to receive for himself a kingdom, and to return.
Luke 19:15 And it came to pass, that when he was returned, having received the kingdom, then he commanded these servants to be called unto him, to whom he had given the money, that he might know how much every man had gained by trading.
In verse 12, obviously a certain nobleman is meaning Christ. went into a far country to receive for himself a kingdom--is meaning his ascension into heaven where He is still currently located. and to return---meaning His 2nd coming.
Verse 11 indicates--- and because they thought that the kingdom of God should immediately appear. Obviously meaning in a physical visible sense. So the parable goes on to tell us why it didn't immediately appear at the time like some were assuming it should. It is because verse 12 needed to be fulfilled first. verse 15 is meaning the return recorded in verse 12, and that verse 15 indicates this---that when he was returned, having received the kingdom---which would obviously have to mean at this point, the kingdom of God finally physically visibly appears. This then showing that the kingdom of God mentioned in Luke 21:29 is still nigh at hand, rather than at hand, is because it is getting close to being at hand once one sees all of these things being fulfilled.