Argument for God's existence.

MrAnderson9

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Since we can’t say with anything regarding certainty about what existed or what conditions were before the first moments of expansion, any argument that describes what “had to have been” or even what “likely occurred” is necessarily an argument from ignorance.

The only answer at this time is “I don’t know”.
We actually can't say anything with certainty because we don't know all the secrets of our existence or universe. What we can however do.. and what we actually do is take the most probably explanation. The explanation of the Creation of our physical universe being directed by an outer force that isn't subject to time is currently the most probable explanation. I've had this discussion with many and no one can come up with a more viable solution that satisfies logic to the extent that the explanation I presented to you does.
 
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MrAnderson9

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This is also speculation. We can define the "universe" to include everything that is subject to time and that which supposedly isn't, the so-called "eternity".
This is not speculation. How could there be any movement in our universe without time? How do you plot any point of any object in space on a graph with no coordinates? Every motion represents a single point in "time".

And seeing that infinity doesn't exist in a physical universe.. each point in time has a reference prior to it. For instance, we know that 3 exists.. because 0... 1... 2... exist as the reference points for 3.

In an infinite system there is no reference points. Every point is the same.
 
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MrAnderson9

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God does not have mass, therefore according to general relativity God is outside of time, or unaffected by time, and therefore does not have a beginning. A multiverse, would have mass, and therefore is affected by time, and thus according to cause and affect has a cause because it had a beginning (due to being affected by time).

unless a skeptic can prove that a multiverse did not have mass they cannot refute this solid argument.
Absolutely sir, you are correct.

The argument with Atheist always ends at "something from nothing". This is the point in which their logic completely falls apart. I personally think it's a failure on their part to understand what a true "nothing" means.

Nothing = not only a physical absence of everything but also an absence of principles and laws etc. Therefore in the even that "nothing" exists... it would an outer force to mold it.. apply laws and principles.. and define it.
 
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bhsmte

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Absolutely sir, you are correct.

The argument with Atheist always ends at "something from nothing". This is the point in which their logic completely falls apart. I personally think it's a failure on their part to understand what a true "nothing" means.

Nothing = not only a physical absence of everything but also an absence of principles and laws etc. Therefore in the even that "nothing" exists... it would an outer force to mold it.. apply laws and principles.. and define it.

And how do you know, this 'nothing' has ever existed?
 
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MrAnderson9

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And how do you know, this 'nothing' has ever existed?
Because I believe the physical universe has a beginning. It shows signs of forward progression. in order for there to be forward progression there would have to be a starting reference point.

Meaning that in order for us to arrive at step 2000.. we would have to be able to reference that step back to something in order to define its place in existence. the initial reference point is the first movement. and every point after that is simply a reference from that point. 2000 is 2000 points from the initial point.

So knowing that there had to be a start... it tells you that our physical universe "began" and wasn't "always" here.
 
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bhsmte

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Because I believe the physical universe has a beginning. It shows signs of forward progression. in order for there to be forward progression there would have to be a starting reference point.

Meaning that in order for us to arrive at step 2000.. we would have to be able to reference that step back to something in order to define its place in existence. the initial reference point is the first movement. and every point after that is simply a reference from that point. 2000 is 2000 points from the initial point.

So knowing that there had to be a start... it tells you that our physical universe "began" and wasn't "always" here.

The universe as we know it had a beginning to get to its current form. We just dont know what may or may not have existed before.

Anyone who does claim to know, is just giving opinion.
 
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ananda

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This is not speculation. How could there be any movement in our universe without time? How do you plot any point of any object in space on a graph with no coordinates? Every motion represents a single point in "time".

And seeing that infinity doesn't exist in a physical universe.. each point in time has a reference prior to it. For instance, we know that 3 exists.. because 0... 1... 2... exist as the reference points for 3.

In an infinite system there is no reference points. Every point is the same.
It is indeed speculation. Also, this was already addressed in one of my first posts in this thread:

Or, we can also say "The universe that supercedes time, never had a beginning, because it is outside of time." Just like the human body as a whole functions differently than its constituent parts, or a solid physical object is composed of quantum states which are definitely not solid, perhaps the universe itself is outside of time, even though "internally" it operates with time.
 
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gaara4158

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you gave evidence from external sources, that you have faith in. To prove it. And that is not proof.
That’s like asking for proof a cat is not a dog. It’s right there in the definition.

even if mirages were provable, and they are not. (not without external sources), it is impossible to prove that the mirage is not just a hallucination.
I’m going to read between the lines and assume you’re asking how we can tell the difference between any given perception being a mirage or a hallucination. And that’s simple enough: ask yourself whether the perception is in line with the kinds of circumstances under which mirages are known to happen. Ask others if they, too, can see the mirage. Take a picture and see if the mirage shows up. Is the answer no to at least two of those questions? You’ve got a hallucination.

yes, exactly. You don't need alleged facts to disprove something as you admitted in your last post.
And? You also don’t need facts to prove things in the exact same way. In fact, disproving one thing requires proof of another. So what’s your point?

well think of it this way. If scientists truly realized they cannot prove anything, would it be that honorable of a trade?
Why do you only ask for proof of things you don’t want to believe, but easily accept other things as “common knowledge?”
 
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MrAnderson9

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It is indeed speculation. Also, this was already addressed in one of my first posts in this thread:

Or, we can also say "The universe that supercedes time, never had a beginning, because it is outside of time." Just like the human body as a whole functions differently than its constituent parts, or a solid physical object is composed of quantum states which are definitely not solid, perhaps the universe itself is outside of time, even though "internally" it operates with time.
You're saying the same thing. Only thing that I and possibly others are trying to explain to you is that the portion of the universe that is not subject to time is what I/others reference as "Eternity" and where the outer force that started the portion of our physical universe (the portion subject to time) resides at.
 
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ananda

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... the portion of the universe that is not subject to time is what I/others reference as "Eternity" and where the outer force that started the portion of our physical universe (the portion subject to time) resides at.
... and that is complete speculation.
 
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MrAnderson9

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The universe as we know it had a beginning to get to its current form. We just dont know what may or may not have existed before.

Anyone who does claim to know, is just giving opinion.
Again.. everything is based on the most logical opinion. And what I've provided to you is the most logical opinion.

We believe the Egyptians built the pyramids. We were not present, we don't have video footage of them doing so.. but the most logical opinion based on what we have is that they in fact built them.

Hopefully that helps you understand this a little better.
 
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MrAnderson9

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The universe as we know it had a beginning to get to its current form. We just dont know what may or may not have existed before.

Anyone who does claim to know, is just giving opinion.
Again.. everything is based on the most logical opinion. And what I've provided to you is the most logical opinion.

We believe the Egyptians built the pyramids. We were not present, we don't have video footage of them doing so.. but the most logical opinion based on what we have is that they in fact built them.

Hopefully that helps you understand this a little better.
... and that is complete speculation.
It's the most logical speculation. You've already demonstrated that you can not deliver one more logical. I've debated this with many and there is no one I've met that can demonstrate one more logical.
 
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ananda

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It's the most logical speculation. You've already demonstrated that you can not deliver one more logical. I've debated this with many and there is no one I've met that can demonstrate one more logical.
It's still speculation involving the gross, physical level.

IMO it is far more logical to approach such questions from the phenomoneological level. Seen from that level, that which might seem logical at the physical level breaks down and becomes meaningless.
 
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bhsmte

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Again.. everything is based on the most logical opinion. And what I've provided to you is the most logical opinion.

We believe the Egyptians built the pyramids. We were not present, we don't have video footage of them doing so.. but the most logical opinion based on what we have is that they in fact built them.

Hopefully that helps you understand this a little better.

It's the most logical speculation. You've already demonstrated that you can not deliver one more logical. I've debated this with many and there is no one I've met that can demonstrate one more logical.

You speculating and speculating in a manner that just so happens to satisfy your personal religious beliefs.

If that works for you, cool, knock yourself out. I just wouldnt be shocked when others disagree.
 
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createdtoworship

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It is indeed speculation. Also, this was already addressed in one of my first posts in this thread:

Or, we can also say "The universe that supercedes time, never had a beginning, because it is outside of time." Just like the human body as a whole functions differently than its constituent parts, or a solid physical object is composed of quantum states which are definitely not solid, perhaps the universe itself is outside of time, even though "internally" it operates with time.
Again.. everything is based on the most logical opinion. And what I've provided to you is the most logical opinion.

.We believe the Egyptians built the pyramids. We were not present, we don't have video footage of them doing so.. but the most logical opinion based on what we have is that they in fact built them.

Hopefully that helps you understand this a little better.

It's the most logical speculation. You've already demonstrated that you can not deliver one more logical. I've debated this with many and there is no one I've met that can demonstrate one more logical.

ananda, I refuted this post the first time you posted it. Let's try this again..
You would have to prove the universe did not have mass for that theory to even be logical. And we know that is not the case, because here we are. According to general relativity time accelerates mass, and if you have no mass you have not time. For a universe to be eternal, it would have to have no mass. Scientists don't think about that though. It sort of disproves the whole "eternal universe" idea.

That comment refutes your comment sufficiently, but let me include a quotation to remove all doubt- this is from a former athiest converted thiest, and He is a scientist in the hard sciences:

"
The universe is not an adequate cause for its own formation (it would have to pre-exist itself to create itself; this is illogical).


“Nothing” is not an adequate cause for the creation/formation of the Universe.


Natural Laws by themselves are not an adequate cause for the actualization (creation/formation) of the Universe out of Nothing.


---


The Multiverse necessarily invokes either an infinite regress (which is illogical/impossible) or creation of something by itself (the multiverse) out of nothing (which is illogical/impossible).


And therefore the Multiverse is not an adequate cause for the existence of the universe (or the multiverse itself).


---


In addition, if Atheism is true, then the multiverse would have to be infinitely old, and it must have been birthing child universes at finite periods all the way through infinity into the past. And those child universes could themselves be birthing child universes into the past.


Therefore, there must necessarily be an infinity of actual physical universes (that were birthed by the multiverse) as we look back into the past (the infinite past in time). And there must currently be an infinite number of actual physical universes in existence.


---


So, in order to avoid the existence of ONE God, we have to postulate an infinite (into time past) infinite (currently) number of universes.


This is the biggest violation of Ockham’s razor ever (and therefore the biggest violation of any principle of logic, rationality and reason ever).


Law of Adequate Cause





Every effect has a cause. And the cause has to be adequate for the effect.


Logical Example:


A body-builder lifts 400 pounds. The effect is the “rising of the 400 pound weights”. The cause of this effect is the body-builder (who chooses to lift the weights).


So, the effect (rising 400-pound weights) has a cause (body builder lifting them).


The body builder is demonstrably strong enough to lift the 400 pounds. Therefore the cause (body builder) is adequate for the effect (i.e., is strong enough to generate the effect; or is capable of generating the effect). In other words, the body builder is strong enough to lift the 400-pound weight.


Illogical Example (effect = self-cause?):


To insist (or to believe) that the 400-pound-weights lift themselves is illogical.


This (above) would be a situation where the effect is its own cause. We infer then, that it is illogical to believe that an effect can be its own cause.


Illogical Example (inadequate cause):


To insist (or to believe) that random chance caused all the air molecules beneath the weights to push upwards and lift up the weights, is illogical.


Note that this is a logical possibility (that all the air molecules beneath the weights push upwards and lift up the weights)… However, to insist (or to believe) that this is an adequate cause for the rising 400-pound-weights is still illogical. We can calculate the probability of this event happening by random chance. The extremely low probability of its occurrence is a trigger that alerts us to the fact that believing random-chance to be the cause is illogical.


The very low probability of such an occurrence, appears to indicate that the postulated cause (random chance) is not adequate for the effect.


Note: this is apart from the fact that random chance cannot be a cause of anything… random chance is a descriptive term used to describe randomness of events caused by other physical entities. Random chance is not a physical entity that can act upon another physical entity (to cause a physical effect)…

"

above quote from:

God
&
Atheist Objections

(130+ Atheist Objections
with Responses
by an Ex-Atheist Scientist)

By
John M. Kinson
 
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ananda

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ananda, I refuted this post the first time you posted it. Let's try this again..
You would have to prove the universe did not have mass for that theory to even be logical. And we know that is not the case, because here we are. According to general relativity time accelerates mass, and if you have no mass you have not time. For a universe to be eternal, it would have to have no mass. Scientists don't think about that though. It sort of disproves the whole "eternal universe" idea.

That comment refutes your comment sufficiently, but let me include a quotation to remove all doubt- this is from a former athiest converted thiest, and He is a scientist in the hard sciences:

"
The universe is not an adequate cause for its own formation (it would have to pre-exist itself to create itself; this is illogical).


“Nothing” is not an adequate cause for the creation/formation of the Universe.


Natural Laws by themselves are not an adequate cause for the actualization (creation/formation) of the Universe out of Nothing.


---


The Multiverse necessarily invokes either an infinite regress (which is illogical/impossible) or creation of something by itself (the multiverse) out of nothing (which is illogical/impossible).


And therefore the Multiverse is not an adequate cause for the existence of the universe (or the multiverse itself).


---


In addition, if Atheism is true, then the multiverse would have to be infinitely old, and it must have been birthing child universes at finite periods all the way through infinity into the past. And those child universes could themselves be birthing child universes into the past.


Therefore, there must necessarily be an infinity of actual physical universes (that were birthed by the multiverse) as we look back into the past (the infinite past in time). And there must currently be an infinite number of actual physical universes in existence.


---


So, in order to avoid the existence of ONE God, we have to postulate an infinite (into time past) infinite (currently) number of universes.


This is the biggest violation of Ockham’s razor ever (and therefore the biggest violation of any principle of logic, rationality and reason ever).


Law of Adequate Cause





Every effect has a cause. And the cause has to be adequate for the effect.


Logical Example:


A body-builder lifts 400 pounds. The effect is the “rising of the 400 pound weights”. The cause of this effect is the body-builder (who chooses to lift the weights).


So, the effect (rising 400-pound weights) has a cause (body builder lifting them).


The body builder is demonstrably strong enough to lift the 400 pounds. Therefore the cause (body builder) is adequate for the effect (i.e., is strong enough to generate the effect; or is capable of generating the effect). In other words, the body builder is strong enough to lift the 400-pound weight.


Illogical Example (effect = self-cause?):


To insist (or to believe) that the 400-pound-weights lift themselves is illogical.


This (above) would be a situation where the effect is its own cause. We infer then, that it is illogical to believe that an effect can be its own cause.


Illogical Example (inadequate cause):


To insist (or to believe) that random chance caused all the air molecules beneath the weights to push upwards and lift up the weights, is illogical.


Note that this is a logical possibility (that all the air molecules beneath the weights push upwards and lift up the weights)… However, to insist (or to believe) that this is an adequate cause for the rising 400-pound-weights is still illogical. We can calculate the probability of this event happening by random chance. The extremely low probability of its occurrence is a trigger that alerts us to the fact that believing random-chance to be the cause is illogical.


The very low probability of such an occurrence, appears to indicate that the postulated cause (random chance) is not adequate for the effect.


Note: this is apart from the fact that random chance cannot be a cause of anything… random chance is a descriptive term used to describe randomness of events caused by other physical entities. Random chance is not a physical entity that can act upon another physical entity (to cause a physical effect)…

"

above quote from:

God
&
Atheist Objections

(130+ Atheist Objections
with Responses
by an Ex-Atheist Scientist)

By
John M. Kinson
That's nice, but it's still an argument not only 1. based on speculative logic, it is also 2. based only on the physical plane of existence. In early Buddhism (as I understand it), our argument is based rather on observation and the phenomenological plane of existence.
 
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Ed1wolf

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And yet, but not that it really matters, it would appear a larger majority of such are not Yahweh believers. The more many study, the harder it becomes for many to retain the same fundamental beliefs. Again, just an observation. The number of believers/non-believers is not really relevant.
That is because since the 1920's secular humanists have controlled the Establishment, which includes public schools from 1st to 12th grade, the government, public university education, popular entertainment, and the mainstream media. All of which teach us that the Christian God is either irrelevant or non existent. So most scientists have been brainwashed with this propaganda against Christianity for 90 years.

cv: But even IF some intentional agent WAS the creator of our known universe, why assume this agent still exists, is perfect, and is 'good'? Side questions, yes, but still curious....
Because His communication to us has told us that He still exists and is perfect and good. And then once we start believing in Him our experiences confirm what His word has said about Him.

Ed1wolf said:
Many reasons. For one the systematic gaps in the fossil record between genera and phyla. And how even beneficial mutations result in a net loss over time of genetic information resulting in what is called genetic entropy and therefore making it impossible to progress toward a more advanced organism.

cv: Maybe you should attempt to publish a paper, have it peer reviewed, and challenge the scientific community. It's been said, not by me, that evolutionary theory is widely supported. If you have ground-breaking crucial data to share, why not share it with authority? You could be famous :)
Many scientists have but they either get ignored or blacklisted by the academic establishment. Read Dr. Jerry Bergman's book "Slaughter of Dissidents."
 
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createdtoworship

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That's nice, but it's still an argument not only 1. based on speculative logic, it is also 2. based only on the physical plane of existence. In early Buddhism (as I understand it), our argument is based rather on observation and the phenomenological plane of existence.
so basically you are saying you reject general relativity for subjective Buddhism. Well you can do that, that's ok. But don't expect us to look at it as a persuasive argument.
 
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ToddNotTodd

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We actually can't say anything with certainty because we don't know all the secrets of our existence or universe. What we can however do.. and what we actually do is take the most probably explanation.

Without adequate facts, there can be no “most probable” explanation that can’t just be discounted as an opinion.

The explanation of the Creation of our physical universe being directed by an outer force that isn't subject to time is currently the most probable explanation.

This is your opinion. I do not share this opinion. If you’re going to convince me that your opinion corresponds to reality, you’ll have to provide evidence of what conditions were like before the Big Bang. Do you have any?

I've had this discussion with many and no one can come up with a more viable solution that satisfies logic to the extent that the explanation I presented to you does.

The burden of proof is yours, not mine...
 
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createdtoworship

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This is your opinion. I do not share this opinion. If you’re going to convince me that your opinion corresponds to reality, you’ll have to provide evidence of what conditions were like before the Big Bang. Do you have any?

ah and we are back to the idea, did someone create the universe, or did it create itself?
 
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