Why did Jesus, being sinless, submit himself to a baptism of repentance of sin by John the baptist?

Our Lord Jesus said that it was fitting to fulfill all righteousness, in which John's baptism was part of (Matt. 3:15).

What was the purpose of John's ministry?

He was sent by God to prepare the way before the arrival of the Messiah by turning the hearts of the people of Israel in repentant readiness (Luk. 2:76-77). Baptism had its origin, not just from God, but from a Jewish rite of cleansing that converts, typically Gentiles, would undergo in the process of entering the covenant community. When God sent John to baptize Jews, it was to symbolically show that they were no less in need for personal cleansing within themselves, and when they acknowledged their own unworthiness and uncleanness before God in believing John's preaching regarding the kingdom of God, this was the first act of showing that repentance by being baptized. This, of course, offended the religious crowd who thought themselves it unnecessary to do this to the children of Abraham, thinking of it as an insult to their perceive status before God as Jews. "And do not say to yourselves, 'We have Abraham as our father.' For I will you, God is able from these stones to raise up children for Abraham. Even now the axe is laid to the root of the trees. Every tree therefore that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire" (Luk. 3:8-9). This ministry of John was paving the way for the Messiah to begin his ministry once he came on the scene, having people in expectation and with hearts repentant to hear him and follow him. "John baptized with the baptism of repentance, telling the people to believe in the name of the Lord Jesus" (Acts. 19:4).

Similar to this, another aspect of John's mission was to bear witness to and testify to all Israel who in particular is the Messiah. "I myself did not know him, but for this purpose I came baptizing with water, that he might be revealed to Israel" (John. 1:31). When Jesus came to be baptized by John, this was the pinnacle moment of his ministry to identify that this is the one who comes to take away the sin of the world and baptize people in the Spirit, that this is the Messiah. After this, Jesus' ministry would overshadow and then replace John's altogether, since that was the purpose. So, this was in keeping with righteousness and the fulfillment of it in all things.

It is also noted that Jesus' baptism was not necessary, since Jesus wasn't someone who needed repentance. But, if he were to show himself to be that expected person, he should identify with his people who do repent and turn to him. In other words, Jesus was baptized to be revealed through John to all Israel, but also to identify with his people as their head, who undergoes what they undergo, share what they have, partake what they do, etc. He becomes all things like his brethren, and baptism under John was something he did not lack.

I hope this help.

Jesus did not wish to appear that He was above any other person at that river that He did not need to go through baptism. The others at the river would see Him as one of them, a real human being, someone they could relate to, other than someone "holier than thou". He did not need the baptism for Himself, but He did it for the others around Him in that river.

Being a converted Christian is not us being better people than the common people around us. It is all to do with Christ in us. We can block the view of Christ in us to others if we think and act "holier than thou" among the common non-religious people we mix with every day.

My wife doesn't feel comfortable around some religious professing Christians who put on a show of being devoted to Christ. She feels that they are "too holy" for her. The fault is not in her, but in those religious people who put on airs about their Christian religiosity to the degree that they make common people feel inferior around them. These are the ones who give the mistaken impression that one has to be a better person in order to receive Christ.

How many times have we heard a sinner say, "I'm not good enough to go to church and become a Christian". Is the fault with him or her, or is the fault of the super-spiritual professing Christians who go around behaving as if they are better people than the common folk? Didn't Jesus treat those type of people as hypocrites? Could it be spiritual pride among professing Christians that is putting sinners off coming to Christ?

Jesus was baptised because He did not wish to appear any different or better than the other sinners who came to be baptised by John.

Jesus is God and therefore to make Himself subject to the laws of God and to do what Adam could not, a baptism was necessary. Jesus came to be and live as a human upon this earth. Why wouldn't He then do what is good and right for humans to do?

When we are baptized we establish that link with Christ. Just as He was baptized, so are we. Just as He was subject to the Law, so are we. Just as He died, so shall we one day. But the joy comes in knowing that because He was raised from the dead, so too shall we be one day.

Why did Jesus, being sinless, submit himself to a baptism of repentance of sin by John the baptist?
Baptism does not "remove sins". Jesus the Christ did not get baptised because He was a "sinner". Neither was He "repenting" of ANY sins.

He was being obedient to the Father.

There is no such thing as a "baptism of repentance".

leowls said:

As above.

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Interesting things about Jesus Baptism

Perhaps a few things:

All prophesy must be fulfilled

To fulfill prophesy(s)

Prophecy:

"A voice of one calling:
'In the wilderness prepare
the way for the Lord;
make straight in the desert
a highway for our God.
Every valley shall be raised up,
every mountain and hill made low;
the rough ground shall become level,
the rugged places a plain'" (Isaiah 40:3–4).

Fulfillment:
"John replied in the words of Isaiah the prophet, 'I am the voice of one calling in the wilderness, "Make straight the way for the Lord"'" (John 1:23).

to fulfill all righteousness


Matthew 3

15But Jesus answered him, “Let it be so now, for thus it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.

2 Corinthians 5:21

He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.

without Christ mankind can not obtain righteousness, all must go through Christ

Romans 3:10-12 (Psalm 14:1-3 10 Psalm 53:1-3)

“None is righteous, no, not one;
11 no one understands;
no one seeks for God.
12 All have turned aside; together they have become worthless;
no one does good,
not even one.”

God affirming strongly and publicly Jesus is in fact His son, by His voice and by His Holy Spirit.

All three were present: God the Father, Jesus & the Holy Spirit - all providing clear evidence and attesting ... this IS in fact the Son of God.

Matthew 27

16 And when Jesus was baptized, immediately he went up from the water, and behold, the heavens were opened to him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and coming to rest on him; 17and behold, a voice from heaven said, “This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased.”

Prophesy fulfilled - Holy Spirit on Jesus

Isaiah 42:1
Here is My Servant, whom I uphold, My Chosen One, in whom My soul delights. I will put My Spirit on Him, and He will bring justice to the nations.

Jesus is the Son of God, sinless, righteous and all must go through Him.

He is our example in all things.


1 Peter 2:21-25

21 For you have been called for this purpose, since Christ also suffered for you, leaving you an example for you to follow in His steps, 22 who committed no sin, nor was any deceit found in His mouth; 23 [a]and while being reviled, He did not revile in return; while suffering, He uttered no threats, but kept entrusting Himself to Him who judges righteously; 24 and He Himself bore our sins in His body on the cross, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by His wounds you were healed. 25 For you were continually straying like sheep, but now you have returned to the Shepherd and Guardian of your souls.

AMEN!

ewq1938 said:

Of course it does.

Act_19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.


Water baptism is called "the baptism of repentance" which in itself proves that it is something more than just a "bath". It is a physical act that teaches about repentance and the removal of sins through forgiveness. Baptism is nothing more than repentance in some water because the water symbolizes how we get clean so it was a teaching tool to help people understand that repenting cleaned their souls like water cleaned your body. We don't need the literal water anymore because there is a great baptism:

Mat_3:11 I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:

Mar_1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
Luk_3:3 And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins;

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Baptism happens after repentance. It does not remove sins. Only Jesus can do that.

I won't belabor the issue. It IS a good study, however.

How are you ewq?

Much of he Jewish scriptures, our Old Testament, were written in a literary style known as midrashic literature. In this style of writing every effort was made to incorporate and interpret new events in terms of events that were already in scripture. In doing so historical accuracy was not nearly as important as meaning. This was what Matthew was speaking of when he wrote that the scribe "…brings out …new treasures as well as old" (Matt 13:52). An example will illustrate this. In Exodus 14 we read that Moses parted the waters of the Reed Sea to lead the Hebrew people out of Egypt. In Joshua 3, we read that Joshua parted the waters of the Jordan River to lead the Hebrew people into the promised land. Did this event actually happen exactly as described? I suspect not. Certainly the river was crossed but the "parting of the waters" has it's most important meaning as a literary device linking Joshua to Moses. God's plan was being carried forward. This midrash of the parting of waters was used again in the Old Testament in 2 Kings 2 when the waters of the Jordan were parted by both the prophet Elijah and the prophet Elisha. This midrash is carried into the New Testament in Mark 1 when at the baptism of Jesus the heavens were parted to permit the descent of the Holy Spirit and God's words of benediction. The meaning is obvious…Jesus becomes the new Moses leading his people from an old life to a new. But Jesus is also portrayed as greater than Moses. For Moses, God only parted waters, but for Jesus, the very heavens were parted. When read for meaning, the historical accuracy of the event assumes little importance. It is when we of the twenty-first century read these stories without knowing their literary background that the mistake is made of assuming that the stories are historically true exactly as written.

ewq1938 said:

The scriptures posted show otherwise.



Ok, you?

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Drinking coffee and counting my blessing.

ewq1938 said:

Yeah it's cold here, I should make some hot tea and put in a thermos for the next few hours. Not too big on coffee but anything works to warm you up!

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i agree. Stay warm!

Jesus identified with sinners and the marginalized, the people who were going to John the Baptist. While the Scriptures say he was without sin, he obviously had sympathies with those groups.

ewq1938 said:

Not the Pharisees and scribes though.

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Over the centuries and going right back to the New Testament itself, the Pharisees have been viewed very negatively. In my opinion most of this negativity is quite undeserved.

At the time of Jesus the Pharisees were the most liberal and progressive aspect of Judaism. They were in several 'schools' or ‘bets’ --- the most progressive was Bet Hillel, which was in a minority position at the time of Jesus. The dominant group was the more conservative Bet Shammai. Towards the end of the first century following the destruction of the temple, Bet Hillel moved into the dominant role. Modern rabbinical Judaism traces its roots to the Pharisee movement.


Being a rabbi, Jesus was also a Pharisee and it seems most likely that Jesus was of Bet Hillel. To suggest that the scribes and Pharisees were in bed with the high priest and his little group is to betray a lack of understanding of Judaism at that time. The high priest, a Sadducee, was the most hated man in Judaism for the simple reason that he was regarded as a Roman 'quisling' --- he was after all personally appointed by the procurator himself and answered to him. The high priest did chair the Sanhedrin but did not control it. It was, in fact, controlled by the Pharisees who opposed the high priest at nearly every turn.


The Pharisees themselves became a major movement within Judaism in the centuries just prior to Jesus. They regarded their role as an effort to make the Law a possession of all the people not just the priesthood and the ruling elite. To this end they established synagogues in the cities, towns and villages. That is to say, they invented the 'community church' and most Christian churches today follow the same order of service established by the Pharisees --- several scripture readings interspersed with prayer and hymns and of course a sermon usually based on one of the readings. They also established schools attached to the synagogues to encourage literacy even amongst the common people. At the time of Jesus they as a group were certainly were not the hypocrites that the gospels portray them as. It is also very probably true that there were individual Pharisees who were over-zealous hypocrites.


In addition, they were able to successfully introduce legal measures to mitigate the harsher aspects of Torah law. This had the effect of virtually eliminating legal executions by stoning for offences like blasphemy, adultery, rebellious youths and the like. In those few executions that did take place, they ensured that the victim was rendered dead or unconscious by the first stone.


Scripture portrays a degree of hostility between the Pharisees and Jesus and his followers. It is doubtful that this was the actual case at the time of Jesus. I suspect that the majority of Pharisees would have been both curious about and friendly toward Jesus. In Acts 5:33-42 Luke portrays Peter and the apostles arrested and taken for trial before the Sanhedrin. Note that earlier in this same chapter it was the Sadducees not the Pharisees who were demanding that the apostles be imprisoned. It was Rabbi Gamaliel, a Pharisee, who successfully defended them before the Sanhedrin. Rabbi Gamaliel was a student of Rabbi Hillel mentioned earlier. Scripture even notes that Saul/Paul studied under Gamaliel.


About forty years following the execution of Jesus, the Romans destroyed Jerusalem and the temple and with it they also destroyed the high priesthood. In the years following, the leadership of Judaism did devolve upon the Pharisees and we see rabbinic Judaism becoming dominant. Like all peoples threatened with cultural extinction, Judaism turned inward --- they circled the wagons and became very suspicious of any threat both internal and external. This is a fundamentalist knee jerk reaction --- we see something similar going on in the Islamic world today and also in the Christian right in certain parts of the USA.


This was the climate in which the gospels were written. By this time it was becoming increasingly apparent that the early Christian church was losing the battle for the heart and soul of Judaism to the Pharisee rabbis and there was a good deal of bitterness on the part of both parties. This explains the animosity toward the Pharisees. Let us then temper our attitudes and ‘Pharisee rhetoric’ because we now realize, for the most part, that they have been portrayed quite unfairly in the gospels.

leowls said:

As above.

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Why did Jesus, being sinless, submit himself to a baptism of repentance of sin by John the baptist?
To fulfill all Righteousness.

It's about the transfer of the office of High Priest from the Levitical priesthood to the Firstborn Son of God of the New Creation human being race.
John had the authority to transfer the office even though he did not understand that he did....He was officially Anointed as Messiah by the Holy Spirit coming down upon Him immediately after
It was only given to Aaron by Moses, who was chosen by Levi for both the office of Patriarchal father and "priest of the most high God"; which office was given to Shem by Noah -back through Methuselah to Adam, the first, firstborn son of God of the human being kind and high priest and Patriarch of the earth.... They were all placeholders until YHWH, the Living Spirit, in the Person of God the Word, put on the garment of Salvation (Isaiah 59) to be Kinsman/Redeemer for the earth and the dead in spirit fallen, "brother" Adam creation

Shem (Melche Tzedek) passed it to Abraham, who passed it to his son Issac...Jacob was chosen, then Levi, then Moses, who gave office of high priest to Aaron, while Moses still served as king....
John most likely was in the true line for that office, which had been sold in the times of the Maccabbees to those who were not legal for holding it. It became a political office after the return from Babylon.
We have a High Priest who does sit on the throne in the heavens and intercedes for us, and He is the Anointed Messiah, and soon coming King of the earth.