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WHAT MUST I DO TO BE SAVED?

Wansvic

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You are assuming something that is not true. Are you sure that you are not the one missing what Jesus has said? It can be hard to look past the log. Jesus said, "Whoever believes in me shall not perish..." Jesus said, "I assure you that whoever hears my word and believes in the one who sent me has eternal life and won't come under judgment but has passed from death into life." Jesus said, "Whoever believes in the Son has eternal life," Jesus said, "Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe is condemned already because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God." Jesus said, "Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever believes has eternal life." Jesus said, "and everyone who lives and believes in me shall never die. Do you believe this?”

Do you believe his words?

Hebrews 6:2 mentions "instruction about washings" (Greek: baptismōn), which some interpret as a reference to Christian baptism. However, there are strong reasons to argue that this passage is not explicitly discussing Christian baptism.

First, baptismōn is plural, meaning "washings" rather than a singular baptism. In the New Testament, Christian baptism is typically referred to in the singular form (baptisma), as seen in passages like Matthew 28:19 and Ephesians 4:5. The use of the plural here suggests multiple washings rather than the one baptism associated with Christian conversion.

Second, the broader context of Hebrews 6:1-2 points to foundational teachings relevant to Jewish believers transitioning to Christianity. These teachings align with Old Testament and Jewish traditions rather than distinct Christian doctrines. The reference to baptismōn fits well with Jewish purification rites, common in the Old Testament (e.g., Leviticus 16:26, Numbers 19:7) and continued in first-century Judaism (Mark 7:4).

Additionally, later in Hebrews (9:9-14), the author explicitly discusses ritual washings (baptismōn) in contrast to the cleansing power of Christ’s blood. If Hebrews 6:2 referred to Christian baptism, it would be inconsistent with this later passage, where such washings are depicted as part of the old system that Christ superseded.

Furthermore, Christian baptism in the New Testament is closely tied to themes such as participation in Christ’s death and resurrection (Romans 6:3-4), receiving the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38), and entry into the New Covenant. These themes are absent in Hebrews 6:2, making it unlikely that this verse refers to Christian baptism.

Finally, considering the Jewish Christian audience of Hebrews, it makes sense that baptismōn would refer to Jewish ceremonial washings rather than a uniquely Christian practice. The letter frequently contrasts old Jewish customs with the superior work of Christ, and this passage likely refers to the elementary teachings they were familiar with before fully embracing the gospel.

For these reasons, Hebrews 6:2 is best understood as referencing Jewish ritual washings rather than Christian baptism.
First, those who believe in Jesus will not perish. Why? Because they will do as He says. (Heb. 5:9)

Secondly, Hebrews 6:1-2 specifically mentions the foundation spoken of relates to the doctrine (teaching) of Christ. As such it has nothing to do the Jewish customs. If it did, circumcision would have certainly been included in the list. The things listed are, however, contained in the gospel message first presented at Pentecost.

The Apostle Peter, after being filled with the Holy Spirit revealed that what was seen and heard was actually the Holy Spirit sent forth by Jesus. (Acts 2:33) Those who believed Jesus was the risen Son of God placed their trust in His promise that if they would obey the command to repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for remission of their sin they too would, at some point be filled with the Holy Spirit. (Acts 2:4-42) This truth is confirmed by scriptures, such as, Acts 8:12-18, 9:17-18, 10:43-48, 19:1-7, 22:16.

"Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God,
Of the doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of hands, and of resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment." Heb. 6:1-2
 
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Mercy Shown

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Sorry, but as I have shown you belief is NOT the only thing that Scripture says is required to receive salvation.
No, you have not. You have listed things that spring from faith and belief. Jesus clearly says that belief is the key. The things you mentioned are the fruit of belief. If you do not believe, you will do none of the things you mentioned. Faith and belief are all we need.

One of the clearest statements of this truth is found in Ephesians 2:8-9, which says, “For by grace you have been saved through faith, and this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast.” This passage makes it explicit that salvation comes as a gift from God, received through faith alone. If any action or effort on our part contributed to salvation, it would no longer be a gift but something earned.

Furthermore, Romans 3:28 reinforces this point: “For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law.” Paul clarifies that righteousness before God is based entirely on faith, not religious deeds or obedience to the law. This is consistent with Abraham’s example in Genesis 15:6, which says, “Abraham believed the Lord, and He credited it to him as righteousness.” Abraham was justified before God simply by believing, not performing any action.

Jesus Himself emphasized that faith is the only requirement for salvation. In John 3:16, He declares, “For God so loved the world that He gave His only Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have eternal life.” There is no mention of additional conditions—just belief in Christ. Similarly, in John 6:29, when asked what work God requires, Jesus responds, “This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent.” He does not list rituals, good deeds, or moral effort—only faith in Him.

If salvation required anything beyond faith—such as good works or religious rituals—it would suggest that Christ’s sacrifice was insufficient. However, Galatians 2:21 states, “If righteousness were through the law, then Christ died for no purpose.” This means that requiring anything beyond faith would undermine the sufficiency of Christ’s atoning work. The Bible teaches that His sacrifice was sufficient for our salvation (Hebrews 10:10, 14).

Some argue that works are necessary for salvation, often pointing to James 2:17, which says, “Faith without works is dead.” However, this does not contradict salvation by faith alone. Instead, James teaches that true faith naturally produces good works, but the works themselves do not save. Paul clarifies this in Romans 4:5, saying, “And to the one who does not work but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness.” Works are a response to salvation, not a requirement for it.

In conclusion, the consistent teaching of Scripture is that salvation comes by grace through faith alone, without the addition of works or human effort. Faith is the instrument through which we receive Christ’s righteousness, and adding anything else would diminish the sufficiency of His work on the cross. Therefore, belief and faith alone are what save us—nothing else.
The word "believe" here (and almost everywhere in the NT) comes from the Greek word "pistis" which means faith. Faith is NOT a passive, mental only concept. As James make clear in James 2:14-26, faith requires action or it doesn't really exist. It is dead, useless, meaningless and ineffective if there is no action associated with it. And faith does not "earn" salvation, but it is absolutely required to receive salvation.
No, faith does not require action. Faith produces action. James teaches that if one claims to have faith but there is no external change, it is not genuine. It is dead. He DOES NOT then say that we can bring it to life by adding good works.
That is never even a consideration of Scripture.

Certainly it is a part of salvation. As Acts 3:19 says clearly, repentance must be don IN ORDER TO RECEIVE forgiveness. It is not effective if done out of compulsion, nor is it effective if it is just lip-service. Repentance means turning our actions, attitudes, and desires away from our sinful past to a life of chasing after God and His righteousness. But it most certainly must be done before salvation is received, or salvation is not received at all.
If someone is not sorry for their actions, why would they want forgiveness??? If they do not desire forgiveness, why would God force it upon them? From where does a desire for forgiveness come from? From a heart dead in its sins and trespasses? Woudl such a heart seek forgiveness?
Repentance is not a "good work" that one might use to "earn" salvation.
Correct, it 8is part and parcel of salvation. A work of the Holy Spirit in a person.
No. The walls falling down was an effect of God's power. It had nothing to do with them marching. Their marching was an act of faith.
Yes, the marching was an act caused by their faith as were the walls falling.
Precisely. And their faith had to be demonstrated before God would knock the walls down.
Their faith was demonstrated because it was a genuine living faith; sadly, they abandoned that faith in their next battle.
Again, no. His healing was an effect of God's power. It had nothing to do with the water or his dipping. His dipping was an act of faith.
His dipping was an effect of faith. Unless you believe he was faithless until he dipped, but then why would he have bothered?
And if he had not obeyed even after he "believed"? Nothing would have happened. He would have gone home a leaper.
If he had not obeyed, it would be because he did not believe. That is the only plausible conclusion. This man was suffering from a terrible skin disease. If he believes the cure is at hand, he will not then run off and abandon it.
Another example is the bronze serpent on the pole that Moses was commanded to raise when Israel was being bitten by serpents because of their sin. If anyone looked at the serpent they would be healed of the poison. But if they did not look, they would not be healed. This is an act of faith. There is nothing in the looking that has the power to heal the poison. And there is nothing in the bronze, or the staff, or any of the rest of it that could heal the poison. But because God commanded it so, and the people did it, the effect was that they were healed.
Yes, it is an act caused by faith. Again, faith is the cause; the actions are the effect.
 
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Wansvic

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Certainly. If it helps others see the truth, I encourage you to use it, and give God the glory.
Thank you! And I will give God the glory as I know all wisdom comes straight from Him. Those who God blesses are to bless others. And, I appreciate your willingness to share what He has chose to impart to you personally.
 
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Mercy Shown

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"The key difference between an adult and a child's mental capacity is that a child's mind is still developing, and have a lower capacity to understand and make reasoned decisions, and fully grasp the consequences of their actions compared to a fully developed adult mind." This Internet definition explained it far better than I could.
So it comes from the internet rather than scriptures?
 
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Mercy Shown

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Sorry, but there is a third category into which some actions fall, besides cause and effect. And that is catalytic. The action is neither the cause nor the effect, but is completely arbitrary on the part of the One who is the Cause. For example:
God commanded the nation of Israel to march around the city of Jericho so that the walls would fall down and they could take the city.
1. Did their marching knock the walls down? No, therefore the marching was not the cause of the walls falling.
2. Did they march after the walls fell? No, therefore the marching was not a result of the walls falling.
3. Would the walls have fallen if they had not marched? No, therefore the marching was a condition of God that had to be met before HE knocked down the walls.

Similarly, God commanded Naaman to dip seven times in Jordan in order for his leprosy to be healed.
1. Did the water of Jordan cleanse his leprosy? No, therefore neither the dipping nor the water was the cause of his healing.
2. Did he dip after he was cleansed? No, therefore the dipping was not a result of his being cleansed.
3. Would he have been cleansed if he had not dipped the seventh time? No, therefore the dipping was a condition of God that had to be met before HE removed the leprosy.

You see? Conditions are not acts of earning, nor are they acts of either cause or effect.
So, it is your position that these acts had nothing to do with faith. Were they just neutral products of faithless people? I would argue strongly that both of these acts were products of faith. People acted because of faith, and faith was the cause.
 
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Wansvic

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So it comes from the internet rather than scriptures?
You are just amazing. I'm left wondering if you are under or over 20 years of age. No need to abate my curiousity.

You may want to ponder the explanation, as it applies to the previously referenced scripture, instead of criticizing where it came from. I didn't even have to bother to reveal I got the definition from the Internet. I did so to avoid being accused of attempting to plagiarize. Bottom line is the writer articulated the meaning far better than I could. And so did @Doug Brents in his post . (#200)

You may want to study rather than criticize. You might just learn something.
 
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Mercy Shown

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You are just amazing. I'm left wondering if you are under or over 20 years of age. No need to abate my curiousity.

You may want to ponder the explanation, as it applies to the previously referenced scripture, instead of criticizing where it came from. I didn't even have to bother to reveal I got the definition from the Internet. I did so to avoid being accused of attempting to plagiarize. Bottom line is the writer articulated the meaning far better than I could. And so did @Doug Brents in his post . (#200)

You may want to study rather than criticize. You might just learn something.
Let's not start this type of interaction. There is no need to insult each other; God does not want this. Critiquing an argument and questioning its validity is what debate is all about. Using ad hominem insults and criticizing the person is a logical fallacy and quickly devolves into a sand-throwing contest. If you can articulate a good argument, let it stand on its own merits, but if the argument is weak and vague, it should be examined more carefully. Appealing to authority is also a logical fallacy and not a legitimate argument. What is your argument, not Doug's or the internet's? If you need to use quotes from these sources, don't insult people as part of your argument.
 
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Doug Brents

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No, you have not. You have listed things that spring from faith and belief. Jesus clearly says that belief is the key. The things you mentioned are the fruit of belief. If you do not believe, you will do none of the things you mentioned. Faith and belief are all we need.
Faith/belief is absolutely necessary, but it is NOT all we need. There are certain actions of faith that God requires for salvation to be given by Him and received by us. Yes, those actions are inspired by our faith, and according to James 2, are the soul of our faith.
One of the clearest statements of this truth is found in Ephesians 2:8-9, which says, “For by grace you have been saved through faith, and this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast.” This passage makes it explicit that salvation comes as a gift from God, received through faith alone. If any action or effort on our part contributed to salvation, it would no longer be a gift but something earned.
If those actions were done in an attempt to earn salvation, you would be right. But God put salvation on the table while we were still sinners, before we had done, or could have done, anything to "earn" it. You are reading Eph 2:8-9 as if it is saying that there is NOTHING man has to do to receive salvation. That is not true. Rom 10:9-10 explicitly says that the physical action of verbally confessing Jesus as Lord RESULTS in our receiving salvation. This means that the physical action of verbal confession is a condition for receiving salvation, and is an act of faith that is required.
Furthermore, Romans 3:28 reinforces this point: “For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law.” Paul clarifies that righteousness before God is based entirely on faith, not religious deeds or obedience to the law.
Yes, he clarifies his point in saying what particular works are excluded: WORKS OF THE LAW! Not all works, but works of the Law.
This is consistent with Abraham’s example in Genesis 15:6, which says, “Abraham believed the Lord, and He credited it to him as righteousness.” Abraham was justified before God simply by believing, not performing any action.
He believed God, and acted accordingly. Without action, faith is dead and worthless (James 2:20, 22, 24, 26).
Jesus Himself emphasized that faith is the only requirement for salvation. In John 3:16, He declares, “For God so loved the world that He gave His only Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have eternal life.” There is no mention of additional conditions—just belief in Christ. Similarly, in John 6:29, when asked what work God requires, Jesus responds, “This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent.” He does not list rituals, good deeds, or moral effort—only faith in Him.
Everywhere that "believe/belief" is found in the NT, it is the Greek word "pistis" which means "faith". Belief is not simple intellectual assent to the truth of the Gospel, but is an active, productive, living faith. Further, as was pointed out in another forum by someone, there are 213 passages that only mention "belief" in reference to salvation. But since Scripture is ALL God's inspired Word, EVERY passage of Scripture MUST agree with EVERY other passage. This means that the general, vague, "faith" passages must be read as being clarified and completed by the more specific passages that mention specific actions that are required to receive salvation: like Rom 10:9-10, 1 Pet 3:21, and Acts 3:19 among others.
If salvation required anything beyond faith—such as good works or religious rituals—it would suggest that Christ’s sacrifice was insufficient.
It would not suggest that at all. God's power was fully sufficient to heal Naaman where he sat on his camel while he was talking to the prophet. But God gave him a condition for being healed, and if he met that condition he would be healed (the action of dipping, and the water itself, having absolutely no healing power of their own), but if he did not meet the condition then he would not be healed.
However, Galatians 2:21 states, “If righteousness were through the law, then Christ died for no purpose.” This means that requiring anything beyond faith would undermine the sufficiency of Christ’s atoning work. The Bible teaches that His sacrifice was sufficient for our salvation (Hebrews 10:10, 14).
Your conclusion is faulty. His sacrifice was entirely sufficient, but that does not prevent Him from establishing conditions for reception of His gift to us. For example, let's say that you have a Billion dollars, and I am broke. Not only am I broke, but I make $1 a year and for the necessities of life I must spend $1.05 per year to survive (I am in debt and have zero chance of getting into the black ever, no matter how long I live). Now, suppose you decide that you are going to give me a car. You purchase the car with your wealth, and you tell the dealership to hold the car until I show up to collect it. Then you tell me that in order to get the car that already has my name on it, I must go to the dealership and tell them my name. Questions for you:
Is the car mine while it is at the dealership?
Does me showing up in any way contribute to the purchase of the vehicle?
Did I "earn" the vehicle by showing up?
Does it do me any good until I show up?
If I never show up to get it, will it ever benefit me?

This is what God has done. He is rich in power while we are in debt to sin with absolutely no hope of ever saving ourselves. He, out of His richness of love, power, and mercy purchased for us salvation. But He does not lay it in our lap, we must have and exhibit faith in order to get it. And this is exactly what Scripture confirms when it says that we must repent in order to receive forgiveness (salvation)(Acts 3:19), and we must confess Jesus as Lord verbally in order to receive salvation (Rom 10:9-10), and we must be baptized (immersed) in water in order to be saved (Acts 2:38, 1 Pet 3:21, John 3:5, Rom 6:1-7, Col 2:11-14, Gal 3:26-27, Eph 5:26-27, among others).
Some argue that works are necessary for salvation, often pointing to James 2:17, which says, “Faith without works is dead.” However, this does not contradict salvation by faith alone. Instead, James teaches that true faith naturally produces good works, but the works themselves do not save. Paul clarifies this in Romans 4:5, saying, “And to the one who does not work but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness.” Works are a response to salvation, not a requirement for it.
Again, this is not what Scripture says. Rom 10:9-10 says clearly that the physical action of confessing Jesus with the mouth RESULTS in receiving salvation. And this echos what Jesus Himself said in Matt 10:32-33.
In conclusion, the consistent teaching of Scripture is that salvation comes by grace through faith alone, without the addition of works or human effort. Faith is the instrument through which we receive Christ’s righteousness, and adding anything else would diminish the sufficiency of His work on the cross. Therefore, belief and faith alone are what save us—nothing else.
Yes, salvation is a gift (grace), and it is received through faith. Faith is not real, alive, or effective if it is not accompanied with actions, so there is no "addition of works" because the concept of faith of necessity includes works.
No, faith does not require action. Faith produces action.
Show me your faith without works (can't be done).
I'll show you my faith in my works.
James teaches that if one claims to have faith but there is no external change, it is not genuine. It is dead. He DOES NOT then say that we can bring it to life by adding good works.
What make a man a living being? Gen 2:7 says that when God breathed our soul into the body He had made, the body became a living being. James says that action is the soul of faith. Without action faith is not alive, it is dead, worthless, meaningless, and incomplete.
Correct, it 8is part and parcel of salvation. A work of the Holy Spirit in a person.
Repentance is not a work of the Holy Spirit. It is an action that is commanded of us in response to God's love.
Yes, the marching was an act caused by their faith as were the walls falling.
The marching was an act of faith that was a condition upon which God knocked down the walls.
Their faith was demonstrated because it was a genuine living faith; sadly, they abandoned that faith in their next battle.
Some did, not all.
His dipping was an effect of faith. Unless you believe he was faithless until he dipped, but then why would he have bothered? If he had not obeyed, it would be because he did not believe. That is the only plausible conclusion. This man was suffering from a terrible skin disease. If he believes the cure is at hand, he will not then run off and abandon it.
He did not believe that dipping would cure him. But he was convinced to try by his servant. And when it worked, then he believed that God really is God. But his faith in action, fulfilling the command of God, resulted in God healing him.
Notice in 2 Kings 5:15 that he says, "Then he returned to the man of God with all his company, and came and stood before him. And he said, “Behold, now I know that there is no God in all the earth, except in Israel...". NOW I know that there is no other God. He did not believe (intellectual assent) until the healing was real, but he demonstrated faith in that he did what was commanded anyway.
 
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Doug Brents

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So, it is your position that these acts had nothing to do with faith. Were they just neutral products of faithless people? I would argue strongly that both of these acts were products of faith. People acted because of faith, and faith was the cause.
God alone is the cause of all healing, good gifts, mercies, and blessings (James 1:17). Faith is the medium through which we receive many of those blessings; Eph 2:8-9 makes this clear. But, contrary to what many believe, this passage does not mean that "there is no human action that is necessary to receive the gift of salvation". This is shown clearly in Rom 10:9-10 and Acts 3:19 (among others) where physical actions are said to LEAD TO/RESULT IN our receiving the gift of salvation.
 
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Mercy Shown

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If those actions were done in an attempt to earn salvation, you would be right. But God put salvation on the table while we were still sinners, before we had done, or could have done, anything to "earn" it. You are reading Eph 2:8-9 as if it is saying that there is NOTHING man has to do to receive salvation. That is not true. Rom 10:9-10 explicitly says that the physical action of verbally confessing Jesus as Lord RESULTS in our receiving salvation. This means that the physical action of verbal confession is a condition for receiving salvation, and is an act of faith that is required.
Does this mean all mute people will not be saved?
 
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Mercy Shown

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Mercy Shown

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Faith/belief is absolutely necessary, but it is NOT all we need. There are certain actions of faith that God requires for salvation to be given by Him and received by us. Yes, those actions are inspired by our faith, and according to James 2, are the soul of our faith.
You assume that these actions are pre-salvation, but you cannot establish that. The Bible has some interesting things to say about the timeline of salvation. Things like Eph 1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love. Is God bound by time, or Has he saved us from the beginning?

The actions you refer to would never be taken by someone dead in their sins and trespasses. If one is dead, they can't take any action. Your doctrine leads us to the conclusion that a person dead to God can somehow take action to receive salvation. This would be impossible.

To be baptized for the remission of sin is used in the same way that I might say, I go to work for my family. Of course, I am not saying that I earn or receive my family by going to work. No, I am saying I do it because of my family. In the same way, I am baptized because of my salvation.

Are you the one who stated that if a man gave his heart to God but was killed on his way to his baptismal service, he would remain damned because he was unbaptized? If not, then let me ask if he would remain damned if that happened?
 
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Doug Brents

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Does this mean all mute people will not be saved?
No, but it is within God's rights to make it so (just as God made the Pharaoh of the Exodus a vessel of His wrath to demonstrate His power on him). But I believe that a mute person's "mouth" is his hands, because that is the instrument through which he speaks.
Rewards for actions is the definition of wages.
No, a wage is owed for services rendered. A gift (like:
healing someone of leprosy,
or feeding them on a small bit of oil and flour through a drought,
or causing a small oil jar to pour enough oil to fill all the jars a woman could borrow,
or knocking down a wall, or healing people of poisonous snake bites, etc.) can have conditions attached to it that do not constitute wages. These actions (like:
dipping in a river seven times,
or giving the last of her food to the prophet,
or borrowing the jars and pouring the oil, or marching around the city,
or looking at a bronze serpent on a staff, etc.) are acts of faith that demonstrate a surrender to the Lordship of God over that person's life.

Here is the difference. A wage would be due if a person did work and then said in their heart, "God, look how good my work is. You owe me ... for my labor." Whereas, a gift is received when a person does what God commands and then says in their heart, "God, You promised that if I did ... You would give me ..., and I am trusting in Your honesty and faithfulness that You will do what You said You would do.
You assume that these actions are pre-salvation, but you cannot establish that.
I can indeed.
Jesus said, IF you confess me before men, [THEN] I will confess you before the Father. If/then is a conditional statement. He also said, IF you don't... THEN I won't....
The same applies to repentance (Acts 3:19) and baptism (John 3:5).
The Bible has some interesting things to say about the timeline of salvation. Things like Eph 1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love. Is God bound by time, or Has he saved us from the beginning?
Who did He save from the beginning? Those whom He foreknew (Rom 8:29). It is God's foreknowledge through which He knew who would obey Him and who would not.
The actions you refer to would never be taken by someone dead in their sins and trespasses. If one is dead, they can't take any action. Your doctrine leads us to the conclusion that a person dead to God can somehow take action to receive salvation. This would be impossible.
No, it is not. When a tree branch is cut from its tree, it retains all the appearance and function of life for a time. Eventually it withers and appears dead, but for a time it is still green, still carries on photosynthesis, etc. The same applies to our soul. It is cut off from the source of life, God, but it has not ceased to function.
To be baptized for the remission of sin is used in the same way that I might say, I go to work for my family. Of course, I am not saying that I earn or receive my family by going to work. No, I am saying I do it because of my family. In the same way, I am baptized because of my salvation.
Let's compare Acts 2:38 and Acts 3:19. In Acts 2:38, repentance and baptism are both commanded "for" the remission of sins, and both of them have the same relationship to "for" (meaning that one is not "because of) (as you say about the family above) and the other "in order to". But now look over at Acts 3:19. Here Peter says that we must repent "in order to receive" forgiveness/salvation. Both repentance and baptism in Acts 2:38 MUST have the same relationship to salvation as repentance does in Acts 3:19.
Are you the one who stated that if a man gave his heart to God but was killed on his way to his baptismal service, he would remain damned because he was unbaptized? If not, then let me ask if he would remain damned if that happened?
In answer to that I must plead that I am not God. This is an exception that Scripture does not address, and so I cannot make that call. But also, I cannot teach or advocate for an exception. I can and will only teach what God says in Scripture, and so I can only teach that a person subject to the New Testament MUST be baptized in order to be saved.

As I have stated elsewhere, if you are trying to find an exception to the rule and then invalidate the rule because of the exception, you are on very dangerous ground indeed. If God is willing to make exceptions to His rules, then that is up to Him to decide. But we must make every effort to do as He commands and not seek ways of slipping by, or going right up to the line and leaning over some.
 
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Mercy Shown

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Yes, he clarifies his point in saying what particular works are excluded: WORKS OF THE LAW! Not all works, but works of the Law.
Titus 3: 5 he saved us, not because of righteous things we had done, but because of his mercy. He saved us through the washing of rebirth and renewal by the Holy Spirit, 6 whom he poured out on us generously through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 so that, having been justified by his grace, we might become heirs having the hope of eternal life.
 
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Valletta

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Where in Scripture (book, chapter, and verse) does it say that the faith of the parents is enough for the infant? On the contrary, it says that each individual must have their own faith, and their own confidence in Christ Jesus for baptism to have any effect.
Genesis 17: 9-14
9 And God said to Abraham, “As for you, you shall keep my covenant, you and your descendants after you throughout their generations. 10 This is my covenant, which you shall keep, between me and you and your descendants after you: Every male among you shall be circumcised. 11 You shall be circumcised in the flesh of your foreskins, and it shall be a sign of the covenant between me and you. 12 He that is eight days old among you shall be circumcised; every male throughout your generations, whether born in your house, or bought with your money from any foreigner who is not of your offspring, 13 both he that is born in your house and he that is bought with your money, shall be circumcised. So shall my covenant be in your flesh an everlasting covenant. 14 Any uncircumcised male who is not circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin shall be cut off from his people; he has broken my covenant.” RSVCE
 
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Mercy Shown

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No, a wage is owed for services rendered. A gift (like:
healing someone of leprosy,
or feeding them on a small bit of oil and flour through a drought,
or causing a small oil jar to pour enough oil to fill all the jars a woman could borrow,
or knocking down a wall, or healing people of poisonous snake bites, etc.) can have conditions attached to it that do not constitute wages. These actions (like:
dipping in a river seven times,
or giving the last of her food to the prophet,
or borrowing the jars and pouring the oil, or marching around the city,
or looking at a bronze serpent on a staff, etc.) are acts of faith that demonstrate a surrender to the Lordship of God over that person's life.
You wouldn't get it unless you did it.

This is a distinction without a difference.
 
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Wansvic

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Let's not start this type of interaction. There is no need to insult each other; God does not want this. Critiquing an argument and questioning its validity is what debate is all about. Using ad hominem insults and criticizing the person is a logical fallacy and quickly devolves into a sand-throwing contest. If you can articulate a good argument, let it stand on its own merits, but if the argument is weak and vague, it should be examined more carefully. Appealing to authority is also a logical fallacy and not a legitimate argument. What is your argument, not Doug's or the internet's? If you need to use quotes from these sources, don't insult people as part of your argument.
The scripture I referenced in Post 174 reveals God held those 20 years of age and up responsible for their actions. (Num. 14:26-29) And, the Book of Deuteronomy records the reason pertained to their mental capacity.

"Surely there shall not one of these men of this evil generation see that good land, which I sware to give unto your fathers,
Save Caleb the son of Jephunneh; he shall see it, and to him will I give the land that he hath trodden upon, and to his children, because he hath wholly followed the Lord.
But Joshua the son of Nun, which standeth before thee, he shall go in thither: encourage him: for he shall cause Israel to inherit it.
Moreover your little ones, which ye said should be a prey, and your children, which in that day had no knowledge between good and evil, they shall go in thither, and unto them will I give it, and they shall possess it." Deut 1:35-39
 
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Mercy Shown

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The scripture I referenced in Post 174 reveals God held those 20 years of age and up responsible for their actions. (Num. 14:26-29) And, the Book of Deuteronomy records the reason pertained to their mental capacity.
Verse 29 states, In this wilderness your bodies will fall—every one of you twenty years old or more who was counted in the census and who has grumbled against me.

This is not to say that everyone under 20 will not be judged. When a census was taken during this time, only men above 20 were counted. I'm sure you did not intend to say that everyone under 20 will not be held accountable for their decisions. Proverbs 20:11 sheds light on this matter when it says, Even a child is known by his doings, whether his work be pure, and whether it be right.

If not being baptized for any reason is an obstacle to salvation, then no place in scripture lets children off the hook. If one believes that children get a pass because they do not know the difference between good and evil, they probably have never been parents. Furthermore, they tacitly identify behavior as one of the pivotal points in earning salvation. Children have done nothing bad; ergo, they are saved. This assumes that humans are born saved until they commit their first sin. This flies in the face of what Jesus taught about the basis of the verdict.

On what basis is a man damned, when does he become damned or is he born damned and subsequently saved by God?
"Surely there shall not one of these men of this evil generation see that good land, which I sware to give unto your fathers,
Save Caleb the son of Jephunneh; he shall see it, and to him will I give the land that he hath trodden upon, and to his children, because he hath wholly followed the Lord.
But Joshua the son of Nun, which standeth before thee, he shall go in thither: encourage him: for he shall cause Israel to inherit it.
Moreover your little ones, which ye said should be a prey, and your children, which in that day had no knowledge between good and evil, they shall go in thither, and unto them will I give it, and they shall possess it." Deut 1:35-39
This passage is saying that the next generation will enter the promised land. Children who have no knowledge of good and evil describe their age, but it is not the reason they will go in. It is a way of delineating the generations, of saying you'll not go in, but this next generation will. It was never intended to be a get-out-of-jail-free card for children. Why did God order the killing of Children by Israel if they were truly innocent?

1 Sam 15:2-3 This is what the Lord Almighty says: ‘I will punish the Amalekites for what they did to Israel when they waylaid them as they came up from Egypt. Now go, attack the Amalekites and totally destroy all that belongs to them. Do not spare them; put to death men and women, children and infants, cattle and sheep, camels and donkeys.’”
 
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Wansvic

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Verse 29 states, In this wilderness your bodies will fall—every one of you twenty years old or more who was counted in the census and who has grumbled against me.

This is not to say that everyone under 20 will not be judged. When a census was taken during this time, only men above 20 were counted. I'm sure you did not intend to say that everyone under 20 will not be held accountable for their decisions. Proverbs 20:11 sheds light on this matter when it says, Even a child is known by his doings, whether his work be pure, and whether it be right.

If not being baptized for any reason is an obstacle to salvation, then no place in scripture lets children off the hook. If one believes that children get a pass because they do not know the difference between good and evil, they probably have never been parents. Furthermore, they tacitly identify behavior as one of the pivotal points in earning salvation. Children have done nothing bad; ergo, they are saved. This assumes that humans are born saved until they commit their first sin. This flies in the face of what Jesus taught about the basis of the verdict.

On what basis is a man damned, when does he become damned or is he born damned and subsequently saved by God?

This passage is saying that the next generation will enter the promised land. Children who have no knowledge of good and evil describe their age, but it is not the reason they will go in. It is a way of delineating the generations, of saying you'll not go in, but this next generation will. It was never intended to be a get-out-of-jail-free card for children. Why did God order the killing of Children by Israel if they were truly innocent?

1 Sam 15:2-3 This is what the Lord Almighty says: ‘I will punish the Amalekites for what they did to Israel when they waylaid them as they came up from Egypt. Now go, attack the Amalekites and totally destroy all that belongs to them. Do not spare them; put to death men and women, children and infants, cattle and sheep, camels and donkeys.’”
Believe as you like.

The gospel was presented to people who were capable of acknowledging Jesus as the risen Son of God, repenting and submitting to water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for remission of their sin.

No command was given to adults in the NT to baptize their children. Those who do so follow a manmade tradition.

Lastly, scripture reveals it is at the point when children know good from evil that they are responsible to obey God.




"Surely there shall not one of these men of this evil generation see that good land, which I sware to give unto your fathers,
Save Caleb the son of Jephunneh; he shall see it, and to him will I give the land that he hath trodden upon, and to his children, because he hath wholly followed the Lord.
But Joshua the son of Nun, which standeth before thee, he shall go in thither: encourage him: for he shall cause Israel to inherit it.
Moreover your little ones, which ye said should be a prey, and your children, which in that day had no knowledge between good and evil, they shall go in thither, and unto them will I give it, and they shall possess it." Deut 1:35-39
 
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Mercy Shown

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Believe as you like.

The gospel was presented to people who were capable of acknowledging Jesus as the risen Son of God, repenting and submitting to water baptism in the name of Jesus Christ for remission of their sin.
Quite a bit more than that comes from Believing in Jesus. Not just water baptism but the Baptism of the Holy Spirit. Conviction and repentance are also part and parcel of believing in Him. Confessing with the tongue and believing with the heart is very powerful, but if one is mute, God accepts one's heart, and if one cannot be baptized due to circumstances such as health issues etc. God also understands that. God is not a bean counter, nor is His hand short to save.
No command was given to adults in the NT to baptize their children. Those who do so follow a manmade tradition.
You are now stuck with a serious conundrum. If Baptism is required for salvation, no ifs ands, or buts about it. Then, Children will be lost because they are unbaptized. There is nothing in the scriptures that states that children get a pass. And if they are genuinely exempt from damnation, then in a strange twist of fate, an abortion doctor may send more souls to heaven than the best evangelists.

To imagine that Jesus imposed one more requirement for salvation just before He left for home seems entirely terrestrial for God.
Lastly, scripture reveals it is at the point when children know good from evil that they are responsible to obey God.

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You are employing a very flawed interpretation of scripture below. Generalizing this specific scripture to mean that all Children are exempt from damnation and need not follow any of God's commands is problematic.
"Surely there shall not one of these men of this evil generation see that good land, which I sware to give unto your fathers,
Save Caleb the son of Jephunneh; he shall see it, and to him will I give the land that he hath trodden upon, and to his children, because he hath wholly followed the Lord.
But Joshua the son of Nun, which standeth before thee, he shall go in thither: encourage him: for he shall cause Israel to inherit it.
Moreover your little ones, which ye said should be a prey, and your children, which in that day had no knowledge between good and evil, they shall go in thither, and unto them will I give it, and they shall possess it." Deut 1:35-39
Texts to consider

Proverbs 20:11
Even small children are known by their actions, so is their conduct really pure and upright?

Genesis 8:21
The Lord smelled the pleasing aroma and said in his heart: “Never again will I curse the ground because of humans, even though every inclination of the human heart is evil from childhood. And never again will I destroy all living creatures, as I have done.
 
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