Merrill
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- Mar 25, 2023
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Serious questions, because I am not a theologian:Depends on what is meant by that, because it's clear from Biblical data like the book of Job that this isn't always the case. There is no direct link between a person's sins and their suffering, though the general principle that suffering exists because sin exists is true.
Depends on how the statement is understood.
Not to speak for @2PhiloVoid, but here's how I understand that statement. One of the chief difficulties of a pastor is accurately identifying human needs. Standing on personal interpretations of the Bible tends to lead to making the real human needs of the congregation an abstraction, and leads to a disconnect between theology and praxis. So if pastors want to truly be effective in their role, they need to take the time to study the dynamics of human behavior and apply it to their teachings. It doesn't mean discarding Biblical truth, but supplementing the understanding we gain from it with insights gleaned from secular study. Allowing empiricism to color our understanding of what the Bible is saying, as much as we allow the Biblical data to color our understanding of empiricism.
1. While all suffering is not the consequence of our personal sin, there was no suffering in Eden correct?
2. So a distinction needs to be made between personal sin, and "original" or conceptual sin--the former is contingent upon the latter
Suffering is a product of the fall, a consequence of human sin against God (Romans 5:12; 1 Corinthians 15:21)
While Job's suffering was not a consequence of his personal sin, it depended upon original sin.
3. The assertion that someone can be free from original sin, and cannot be held accountable for the sins of others (aka humanity) is Pelagianism
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