the only time I ever see day in the singular form referring to an age or an era is when it’s used with in the term “in the day”.
Can you give me an example of this where "in the day" refers to an age? There are hundreds of occurrences of this expression, and what I am seeing is that it applies to a specific day, such as in the day they were created, in the day they ate of the fruit, etc. In Genesis 31:40 "bayyowm" applies to
daytime in general, but not to an age. I'm sure it can apply to an age, so I am not discounting your interpretation, I'm just wondering where you see it.
The expression "in the days" is also common--and that, to me, is the nearer equivalent to an age. One who knows Hebrew will know that sometimes plural in Hebrew is a form of emphasis or it can add a nuance of meaning not present in the singular. For example, the Hebrew actually says "the bloods of Abel your brother...." The word "blood" tends to get pluraled when it was shed by violence. The English translation (KJV, at least) never plurals the word, so this nuance is lost.
If you know I'd like to ask you what do you think that Greek is more northern than Hebrew which is more southern than Greek and more northern than Arabic for example...
I'm not sure I understand your question. Greece is mostly west and slightly north of Israel/Canaan. Greek is not a Semitic language, but the Semitic languages are all similar enough to be mostly mutually intelligible, including Hebrew, Syriac/Aramaic (depending on era), Ugaritic, Phoenician, Canaanite, Moabite, etc., and, slightly more divergent, Arabic. One of my professors, a Jewish rabbi, likes to disparage "Greeky thinking." He believes the Greeks were too unintelligent to understand such concepts as that one cannot stop time, i.e. there is no existence of "now." As I have said, Hebrew lacks a present tense verb, though some might argue a little bit with this on one or two exceptions, such as a verb which essentially means "exists."
Yep, God created light first thing,and the sun three days later.
Have you wondered why God created light, then waited three days to create the sun? Have you wondered why God even tells us which day He made what? Why not simply say something like: "In one week, God created everything in our world." Wouldn't that be simpler?
What many miss is that creation week is packed with symbols, because it is God's prophecy of the major events to occur in the yet-future millennia of earth's history. Light represents truth, and during the first thousand years of mankind, everyone knew the truth. They knew that God had created everything. They could speak with Adam himself until Adam died at age 930. They could see the cherubim guarding the way to the Tree of Life with flaming swords. They had the truth. This is why their subsequent rebellion against God was so egregious as to provoke the Flood. The sun represents Jesus--see Revelation 22:16. He is the source of light and truth. No greater Light has ever entered the world, and John 1:4-9 speaks of that Light, "which lighteth every man that cometh into the world." While Jesus is the source of light, like the sun, the prophets reflect that light, like the moon. The moon represents the spirit of prophecy. See 2 Peter 1:19-21. Jesus came to our earth in the fourth millennium, in fulfillment of the record which says he was the lamb slain from the foundation (creation) of the world (see Revelation 13:8).
And He said water, and there was water.
Where did you read this text? While I do not believe God was dependent on pre-existing matter during Creation Week, God did not say "Let there be water," and this was because it did not fit the prophecy. Water represents people (see Revelation 17:15), and the history of earth started with people.
I've been saying third; I stand corrected. The "24 Hour Day Creation" thing is still baloney.
Each day was 24 hours. But each of those 24-hour days represented a millennium in prophecy. See 2 Peter3:8 (in the context of verses 1-13); and Psalm 90:4.
Here's one no flattie attempted to explain. Tlking to a ham on 20 meters. He's in Queensland, I'm in Tennessee. Bad interference, hard to talk. He switches to CW (Morse code, maximum efficiency) and suggests we try long path. So we both turn our beams (half wave 3 element yagi on my end, dunno what he had except that it was steerable) 180 degrees so they were pointing away from each other. Lo and behold, there we were, little QRN, able to talk without endlessly repeating ourselves. Makes perfect sense on a globe, unexplicable on a flat earth. You're welcome to give it a shot, though; and trying would make you the first.
HAM radio operators know about the F1 and F2 atmospheric layers which split during the daytime but combine into a single F layer at night which facilitates the propagation of the radio waves. It is much easier to send the waves through the night side as a result, because the layer division disrupts the waves on the daylight side. This is something a Flat-Earther will be unable to explain, because the entire planet should be lit at the same time on this face. This goes back to my question about time zones. I don't think there can be any answer for time zones in flat-earth theory.
but You'll never convince me that the earth is a spinning globe as most likely i'll never convince you that the earth is stationary & level, but that won't stop me trying.
