Paul is talking from Adam until Moses. Not before Adam. So from Adam to Moses there was sin (because of Adam) but no law (because no Moses). And sinning not in the same way that Adam - well, how did Adam sin? He ate the fruit. Nobody else was able to sin in the same way because we don't have access to the fruit. We sin in other ways - we lie, we murder, we have a sin of pride.
I don't see why this same logic could not also address people of an adamic law, even if the passage could be interpreted one way or the other.
The logic being that, people are held accountable based on their understanding of the law. And in an environment where there is no law, of course the standards would be different. They can't be held accountable to something they aren't aware of or have not received.
Then flip back to Romans 2:12-15 - "All who sin apart from the law will also perish apart from the law, and all who sin under the law will be judged by the law. 13 For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God’s sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous. 14 (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law. 15 They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts sometimes accusing them and at other times even defending them.) "
That's fine. Paul is helping to unify Jews and gentiles in this section of Romans.
Romans 2:10-11 ESV
[10] but glory and honor and peace for everyone who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek. [11] For God shows no partiality.
Romans 2:14-15 ESV
[14] For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law. [15] They show that the work of the law is written on their hearts, while their conscience also bears witness, and their conflicting thoughts accuse or even excuse them
I would say that these wouldn't necessarily relate to pre Adamic people. Paul appears to directly address the Jews and Gentiles here.
Then flip back even more to Romans 1:18-21 - "The wrath of God is being revealed from heaven against all the godlessness and wickedness of people, who suppress the truth by their wickedness, 19 since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them. 20 For since the creation of the world God’s invisible qualities—his eternal power and divine nature—have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that people are without excuse. 21 For although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him, but their thinking became futile and their foolish hearts were darkened."
So according to Romans 1, if people existed before Adam, these people had the capacity to know God and indeed they knew God.
To some extent, yes. Through things like natural or general revelation.
Which you say they didn't.
God had not communed with mankind at this time in history. God wasn't walking in the garden with people for example. That direct relationship wasn't present.
According to Romans 1, they where godless and wicked and God's wrath is on them, but according to you they were not held accountable.
Huh? No. Gods wrath is not upon random unknowing people. There's a difference between the wicked who suppress Gods message, and people who simply aren't communing with God later in History.
Paul is specifically addressing pagan worship in Romans 1:
Romans 1:23 ESV
[23] and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images resembling mortal man and birds and animals and creeping things.
He's essentially speaking of people who worship demons. And that wouldn't fit the bill for pre Adamic people. Maybe some, but in context this is more rightly addressing things like the cult of Artemis or cults identified in Ephesians or Colossians. Gnostic Jews or things of this nature.
According to Romans 2, Lucy would have been judged by her conscience. But according to Genesis 2, if as you say it came after Genesis 1, Lucy would not have had conscience. And according to Romans 5, death reigned from Adam (as opposed to from creation) - so, assuming we are talking about spiritual death - Lucy was spiritually alive?
I never said that Lucy would not have had a conscience. I'm not sure what you mean by that. Lucy would have been made in the image of God, as all humanity was.
I don't think the text clarifies, at least not the passages You've referenced, on the question of how pre Adamic people would or would not have been judged. Paul appears to be addressing pagan worship.
I think that ultimately, whether Lucy would have been judged based on a law of general revelation or a law of special revelation, or no law at all, I think that in all of the above options, Lucy would have an opportunity for salvation no matter how this is interpreted.
If no law at all, Lucy, similar to animals, may not be judged. If a law of the heart or through general revelation, then Lucy may be saved much like people today who live in remote tribes of the Amazon where they never get to know Jesus through the church.