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the People who say "God told me, God spoke to me" extra biblical revelation

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Jamdoc

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No, the word of God in 1 John 2 that abides in you is "what you heard from the beginning" v24.

The "word of God" invariably refers to scripture (2 Samuel 16:23, Proverbs 30:5, Mark 7:13, Luke 8:10-12, 1 Cor 14:36, Heb 4:12 , etc, etc, etc)

The "Word" (not "of God") is a name for Christ referred to once by John in John 1:1

It's more than once it's in John 1, 1 John 5, and Revelation 19

Jesus is the Word of God made flesh that's the doctrine John gets across. It is to say that everything Jesus said, is as authoritative as all the rest of scripture.

What I'll agree is not authoritative, is charismatics claiming they have a word of prophecy for you and their track record for being right is oh.. 10-18% or something like that.
 
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Jamdoc

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I think you're reaching (while trying to go off topic with your charismatic hatred).

The whole of the NT church teachings came through Paul, not Jesus, and Paul specifically says that he received the teaching of this from Jesus "by revelation." It is sort of hard to say different when scripture is very specific on this.

No it's because I can find a lot of what Paul taught in the Old Testament, and the Gospel accounts. I don't see Paul teaching entirely new things but rather explaining what was already there.
as to "by revelation" yes. the revealed Word of God. Scripture.
 
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swordsman1

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It's more than once it's in John 1, 1 John 5, and Revelation 19

Jesus is the Word of God made flesh that's the doctrine John gets across. It is to say that everything Jesus said, is as authoritative as all the rest of scripture.

What I'll agree is not authoritative, is charismatics claiming they have a word of prophecy for you and their track record for being right is oh.. 10-18% or something like that.
I don't see the term in John 1 or 1 John 5. But I concede "The Word of God" appears in Rev 19 where W is capitalized and it says that is a name for Christ. But that doesn't mean that every instance of the term "word of God" in scripture (lower case w) is a reference to Christ. It all other places it invariably refers to scripture, as it does in 1 John 2.
 
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Jamdoc

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I don't see the term in John 1 or 1 John 5. But I concede "The Word of God" appears in Rev 19 where W is capitalized and it says that is a name for Christ. But that doesn't mean that every instance of the term "word of God" in scripture (lower case w) is a reference to Christ. It all other places it invariably refers to scripture, as it does in 1 John 2.
John 1
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
2 The same was in the beginning with God.
3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

"the Word was God,

1 John 5
7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
God the Father, God the Holy Ghost and.... Jesus, God the Son, the Word of God made flesh.
 
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Carl Emerson

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So
I already have. There is no reference to the "Word of God".

The whole narrative references The Word who is Jesus.

2 Peter 3:5
For when they maintain this, it escapes their notice that by the word of God the heavens existed long ago and the earth was formed out of water and by water...

That is a reference to Jesus, not the Scripture.
 
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swordsman1

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swordsman1

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2 Peter 3:5
For when they maintain this, it escapes their notice that by the word of God the heavens existed long ago and the earth was formed out of water and by water...

That is a reference to Jesus, not the Scripture.
No, that is a reference to the spoken word of God. Not Jesus, "the Word".
 
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ARBITER01

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I have already given you one - Rom 8:16. It says the Spirit bears witness "with" our spirit, not "to" our spirit.
No,... that's not an example.

You said this,...

He does not witness internally TO our spirit, but witnesses alongside our spirit ('with' our spirit).

Ok. give a biblical example of this happening with someone so we can verify what you say is true.
 
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ARBITER01

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as to "by revelation" yes. the revealed Word of God. Scripture.

Oh really?

Please show us where in the OT there is teaching about the gift of tongues and the interpretation of tongues that Paul was able to refer to.
 
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swordsman1

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No,... that's not an example.

You said this,...

He does not witness internally TO our spirit, but witnesses alongside our spirit ('with' our spirit).

Ok. give a biblical example of this happening with someone so we can verify what you say is true.
According to Rom 8:16 it happens with all of us. Or was Paul lying?
 
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ARBITER01

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According to Rom 8:16 it happens with all of us. Or was Paul lying?

If you can't produce an biblical example for us (of which there should be many between the OT and NT), then it is safe to say your are just promoting a personal opinion about things and not a biblical truth.
 
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swordsman1

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If you can't produce an biblical example for us (of which there should be many between the OT and NT), then it is safe to say your are just promoting a personal opinion about things and not a biblical truth.
If you want to tear out Rom 8:16 from your bible, that's up to you.
 
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ARBITER01

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If you want to tear out Rom 8:16 from your bible, that's up to you.
If you can't present to us some sort of biblical example of your teaching actually happening in scripture, then we should just disregard what you have to say on subjects like this.
 
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ARBITER01

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It is not my teaching, it is Paul's teaching.
Naaaaaa,.... this is the first time I've ever heard of this, so it is must be from you. I don't even see it in any scholars opinions.
 
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swordsman1

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Naaaaaa,.... this is the first time I've ever heard of this, so it is must be from you. I don't even see it in any scholars opinions.
Well, it's right there in scripture. Paul's words are as clear as day. Here they are again....

"The Spirit himself testifies with our spirit that we are God’s children."

Every bible version says the same.
 
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