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What is more in Rom 14 Paul defends all of the OT Lev 23 annual feasts saying one man observes one of them above the others while another observes them all and that neither is to be condemned.
You try to limit it to feast days, but the text is quite broad. There is no limit in the text to just "annual" events.
5 One person esteems one day above another; another esteems every day alike. Let each be fully convinced in his own mind. 6 He who observes the day, observes it to the Lord; and he who does not observe the day, to the Lord he does not observe it.
A fascinating text, and I think there is more to it. But that is getting far afield in a response that is already far afield.Paul's balancing statement on that is in Gal 4 where he condemns even one observance of a pagan holy day.
Do you plan on addressing the actual focused topic of this thread, the OT parallel passages?
And has no animal sacrifice
Sabbath is introduced in Gen 2:1-3 and we are reminded of that in Ex 20:11.
Sabbath is introduced in Exodus 16 as a commandment, in the context of the manna, and specifically included in the ten in Exodus 20, and called a sign with Israel in Exodus 31.
In all cases it appeals to God's authority as Creator and Redeemer, such as in Deut. 5.
There is no commandment at all in Genesis about the Sabbath. God does rest. And Moses in relating that indicates this is the basis for the sanctification and blessing of the day.
We are reminded of God resting in Exodus 20. And Genesis, being largely written by Moses, and on narrative with Exodus was likely written after the giving of the command by the voice of God at Sinai. God told Moses to write down the things that were said, and it was all later put in one narrative.
Even you agreed I don't favor the Catholic view. And you nor the Catholics have pointed to any commandment in Eden, or prior to Ex. 16.Even your RCC sources point to the Sabbath as coming from Eden and not from Ex 16.
God did rest at creation from His works.
Your inference noted - but not sustained in the text.
The text only informs us that the manna-system had not been in place before - it does not tell us that they did not keep the Sabbath from Egypt to Sinai given that their "observance" in Ex 16 was to rest and they had rested after the Exodus waiting to cross the Red Sea.
He didn't introduce just the idea of the manna, but of the day of rest.
22 And so it was, on the sixth day, that they gathered twice as much bread, two omers for each one. And all the rulers of the congregation came and told Moses. 23 Then he said to them, “This is what the Lord has said: ‘Tomorrow is a Sabbath rest, a holy Sabbath to the Lord. Bake what you will bake today, and boil what you will boil; and lay up for yourselves all that remains, to be kept until morning.’
But of course, as long as we are talking about inferences, there is no mention of any Sabbath command prior to Exodus 16.
Isaiah 66:23 says that for all eternity after the cross in the New Earth "from Sabbath to Sabbath shall ALL mankind come before Me to worship" -- so much for "Sabbath ended at the cross" ideas.
I did not say the Sabbath ended at the cross.
I noted James and all the believers in Jerusalem continued to keep it. They would be keeping it at the destruction of Jerusalem, etc.
But it does say not to judge.
And you keep eliminating the New Moon from that text Bob.
Is 56:6-8 specifically singles out gentiles for Sabbath keeping
Gentiles who joined themselves to the covenant.
6 “Also the sons of the foreigner
Who join themselves to the Lord, to serve Him,
And to love the name of the Lord, to be His servants—
Everyone who keeps from defiling the Sabbath,
And holds fast My covenant—
7 Even them I will bring to My holy mountain,
And make them joyful in My house of prayer.
Their burnt offerings and their sacrifices
Will be accepted on My altar;
For My house shall be called a house of prayer for all nations.”
8 The Lord God, who gathers the outcasts of Israel, says,
“Yet I will gather to him
Others besides those who are gathered to him.”
Why Bob? Because the gentiles were not keeping it already, it was a sign with Israel. Those joining themselves to the covenant would be included in Israel.
Act 13 - it is specifically gentiles that ask to have more gospel preaching scheduled for "the NEXT Sabbath" rather than "tomorrow - week-day-1"
Yes, because both gentiles and Jews were meeting in the synagogues. Already noted above.
Jesus says it Mark 2:27 referencing them making of the Sabbath and the making of mankind which is Gen 2:1-3
The text shows that He, the Son of Man, is the Lord of the sabbath, and does indeed affirm that it was for man--a blessing, not man for the Sabbath, as though to serve it. They had made man to serve it as a burden, rather than what was intended.
However, I would say the choice of the word man may be more informed by the parallel with Son of Man to express His being the true judge of lawful Sabbath observance since it will be Him reigning over all the nations and judging them, and they are thinking to judge him.
Jesus did not in that passage say that the Sabbath was given as a command at creation. He did say it was given to man
The specifics of which men it was given to have already been pointed out a number of times, as it was a sign with Israel:
Exodus 31:12 Then the Lord said to Moses, 13 “Say to the Israelites, ‘You must observe my Sabbaths. This will be a sign between me and you for the generations to come, so you may know that I am the Lord, who makes you holy.
And in Ezekiel 20:
10 “Therefore I made them go out of the land of Egypt and brought them into the wilderness. 11 And I gave them My statutes and showed them My judgments, ‘which, if a man does, he shall live by them.’ 12 Moreover I also gave them My Sabbaths, to be a sign between them and Me, that they might know that I am the Lord who sanctifies them. 13 Yet the house of Israel rebelled against Me in the wilderness; they did not walk in My statutes; they despised My judgments, ‘which, if a man does, he shall live by them’; and they greatly defiled My Sabbaths. Then I said I would pour out My fury on them in the wilderness, to consume them. 14 But I acted for My name’s sake, that it should not be profaned before the Gentiles, in whose sight I had brought them out.
The sabbath was multiple times said to be given to Israel, and it was in conflict with leaders in Israel that He noted that His authority trumped theirs, as He is Lord of the Sabbath.
and of course no text at all about "do not take God's name in vain" prior to Ex 20.
And your point?
My point is that it is not just an argument from silence in the same way. The Sabbath is spelled out to be with Israel as a sign. One of the rationales of that sign was their release from Egypt.
Deuteronomy 5:15 And remember that you were a slave in the land of Egypt, and the Lord your God brought you out from there by a mighty hand and by an outstretched arm; therefore the Lord your God commanded you to keep the Sabbath day.
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