Mark Quayle said:
Answer the question, "If God is THE First Cause, and Omniscient and, of course, Omnipotent, how is it even possible that something could come to pass apart from his decreeing it to be so?"
Why does the question of "if no one else ever gets to make a decision" come up? Nobody is saying that nobody else but God decides.
But you are saying that everybody's decisions except for God's are detrmined by God, right? So in effect God makes all the decisions. Can anyone go against a decree of God?
I expect this is where you got that idea: "Although God knows whatsoever may or can come to pass, upon all supposed conditions; yet hath He not decreed any thing because He foresaw it as future, as that which would come to pass, upon such conditions." It is not saying that the only way he foresees is by causing, but that his decree (and I will add, 'his causing') is not dependent on his ability to see the future.
Yes, that's the correct reference. And yes, it's not based on His ability to see the future, but it doesn't offer any other option than that He knows because He causes, when you take your citation within the greater context.
I would enjoy a thread, a discussion on the notion/concept of God seeing into the future; God is not like us.
Notice you say, "...if we... reflect on it,". The "we" there does not include the Reformed, nor the Calvinists, nor others of that sort.
Yes, that was an exclusive "we".
As I have said before, you have a completely different worldview, that I call self-determinism, that does not consider that God is a completely different order of being, self-existent, which necessarily implies a different reality from what we know and deal with here. It is FROM him that we, and time, and all the other principles to which we are subject, come. HE is the default fact. He is not subject to our 'reality'.
Sure, but He made us to be facts in His reality. But if I were to create something that had its own will, and I commanded it to do something, it NOT doing that something would be the opposite of my decree. If doing the opposite is what I wanted, then my command would be duplicitous, and my creature would learn that to do the opposite of my command is really what I want from it--and my creature would be correct, in at least some instances. But not in others. Therefore my creature would have no idea how to please me, even if it wanted to and had the power to. Duplicity is the same kind of thing as "a kingdom divided against itself" that cannot stand. It's weird to me that Jesus would attribute wisdom to Satan that He wouldn't use Himself.
God glorifies himself. What is man, that God should gain glory by man's admiration?
It doesn't matter if God expects man to glorify Him.
God gains his glory by his use of man. (No, I'm not saying man should not glorify God, nor even that it is meaningless to God.) Likewise, how can man's praise of God be of any value to God, apart from God doing it in man.
Not true...there's no glory in a robot's praising, only a weird creepiness.
If man, apart from God, praises God, he has done nothing. His words are useless, and he is unable to describe God. Only God can do it in him, to any worthy degree. "Apart from me, you can do nothing."
Context shows clearly that Jesus wasn't talking about everybody and every thing in that statement. He's talking about the things the apostles would be doing for Him, that they needed to abide in Him to "bear much fruit". That obviously eliminates anyone who isn't trusting in Christ, and does not include...wait for it...NOT ABIDING IN HIM. Why do you apply it to everybody and everything, including sin?
The problem with the idea of a God who created a world where he doesn't know the future exhaustively is simple contradiction of omnipotence and omniscience.
Why?
But you're not the first who attempts to say it is no contradiction if he doesn't know what hasn't happened yet.
Nor the last, I expect.
But logically, it is impossible for First Cause "with intent" —i.e. God— from whom all fact logically descends via causation, to make anything uncaused. (It is self-contradictory to say that he can cause something he does not cause).
Yes, that's why we introduce subsidiary first causes. In other words, God made us to be able to cause things in our own right. In other words, we have freedom to choose right or wrong, good or bad, life or death, yes or no, travel or stay home, vanilla or chocolate. And doing so alters the following scenarios. But such altering is not outside of God's power to accomplish HIS plans.
Now if one says he can cause the thing, and so it is caused, but that he didn't know about it, or if he did, that he is unaware of its effects, then you are not only heretically ruling out omniscience and omnipotence, but you are engaging in circular reasoning: You are merely claiming something is valid by attempting to make a definition for it. The Open Theist does this, by saying it is not that God doesn't know some things. It is just that they are not yet things because they haven't happened yet. But the Open Theist does not know that he has invented a principle over which God is not sovereign.
I guess it depends on your definition of sovereignty.
Thus, his claim makes God not First Cause, after all, but just Main Cause. And so do you.
No, First Cause still works. But it doesn't mean no one else can cause something God doesn't want. Definitions again.
Does God mean what he says, when he claims omniscience?
Would you like to quote a verse where He claims it?
Does God mean what he says when he claims omnipotence? Do you believe he is those things? Because if god is less than Omnipotent, he is not God.
Based on which definition of "God"? Is it one from the bible?
Hezekiah's illness is no better an example than God's message to Ninevah through Jonah, nor any of several other such examples.
Actually it's a much better example.
It seems to me you don't want to find a way to understand them contrary to your notions of God's impotence.
I could say the same for you.
There are (at least) two kinds of prophecy found in Scripture. One is warning —telling what will happen if— and the other is foretelling what WILL Happen.
There are no "ifs" in your view of God.
But what was the "if" condition for Hezekiah, and how did he know? (The Ninevites knew they were being bad and needed to repent in sackcloth and ashes.) Was it merely to pray for something different than was prophesied? David did that, in sincerity like Hezekiah, and in humility like the Ninevites, but it wasn't good enough. And David wasn't being near as selfish as Hezekiah.
2 Samuel 12:14 KJV — Howbeit, because by this deed thou hast given great occasion to the enemies of the LORD to blaspheme, the child also that is born unto thee shall surely die.
(compare with:
Isaiah 38:1 KJV — In those days was Hezekiah sick unto death. And Isaiah the prophet the son of Amoz came unto him, and said unto him, Thus saith the LORD, Set thine house in order: for thou shalt die, and not live.)
2 Samuel 12:16 KJV — David therefore besought God for the child; and David fasted, and went in, and lay all night upon the earth.
(compare:
Isaiah 38:2 KJV — Then Hezekiah turned his face toward the wall, and prayed unto the LORD,)
2 Samuel 12:22 KJV — And he said, While the child was yet alive, I fasted and wept: for I said,
Who can tell whether GOD will be gracious to me, that the child may live?
David was an open theist.
So was Hezekiah.
The only way you can know which prophecies are warnings vs which are foretelling is how? That the warnings don't come to pass? You realize that's circular, right? Essentially that means that any time there's a prophecy you don't like, you have to assume it's a warning and pray for mercy...in other words, you have to act like an open theist.