Fervent
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- Sep 22, 2020
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There's definitely a fine line between questioning what men have said about God, and questioning God Himself. Where I object to the question is not on questioning whether a human claim about God is morally justifiable, but in the way the question is approached. The reason I say the question places the questioner in the position of God's judge is how the moral objection is arrived at, as it is drawn not from our sources that reveal who God is but instead drawn from the individual's personal opinion. So rather than coming to the text without a pre-conceived notion and allowing God to reveal who He intends to reveal Himself as, the text is forced to conform to the personal opinion and God is judged as worthy or unworthy(and where God is revealed as unworthy the image massaged to meet the individual's conscience.) There's room for discussion over whether the orders were carried out, but the orders in the conquest were for complete destruction and there were multiple instances where the Israelites were rebuked for showing mercy where God did not desire them to show mercy(such as Saul sparing the king of the Amalekites), The premise of the OP question seems t be that we can, independently of Scripture, determine correct moral positions and that if God in Scripture falls below human standards then the error must be in the Scripture or at least in the interpretation of Scripture. It renders man the judge of God, or at least God's word.I'm not sure if it's placing oneself in the role of God's judge, or judging how man describes God. What you said about man grasping the dark with limited knowledge supports that. Also I don't think God ordered genocide, because the people who are described as being as being wiped out, appear again and Israel has dealings with them. And again, I think it's man's version of God's morality that's being challenged. Universalists I've listed to consider it highly offensive along the lines of blasphemy.
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