Danthemailman
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- Jul 18, 2017
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I mangled nothing, but instead, properly harmonized Scripture with Scripture before reaching my conclusion on doctrine. I'm sorry that you do not understand.Ahh, so you did. You mangled them, and gave a false "explanation" of them, but you did try. No, there is NOT a "parenthetical" phrase in Acts 2:38. Forgiveness of sin is linked back to both repentance AND baptism. If there was any kind of dispute about what it relates to, it would relate back to the closest thing in the sentence, and that would be baptism. You are correct that Acts 3:19 relates repentance with salvation. And 1 Pet 3:21 relates baptism with salvation (along with many other passages).
More eisegesis on your part and water baptism is the picture, but Spirit baptism is the reality. Once again, as Greek scholar AT Robertson stated, a symbol is not the reality, but the picture of the reality.Again, you mangled the passage. The passage is not speaking about Spirit baptism, but water baptism. And it says clearly that baptism is the point at which we are saved, not by removing dirt from the body, but through the working of the Holy Spirit (see Rom 6 and Eph 2) who does the action of removing our sin (forgiveness of sin as Acts 2:38 says).
Romans 6 - Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament - Bible Commentaries - StudyLight.org
That statement is the epitome of irony.You should listen to your own admonition. You ignore clear instruction in Scripture because it does not agree with your preconception.
You redefine belief to "include" works. So do ALL works-salvationists. The Greek words for "pistis" and "pisteuo" are two forms of the same word. "Pistis" is the noun form, "pisteuo" is the verb form. Nothing in the root meaning of either word carries any concept of works. If you believe in Christ for salvation, then you are trusting in Him alone to save you. This belief results in actions appropriate to the belief (to one degree or the other/all genuine believers are fruitful, yet not all are equally fruitful) - but the actions are NOT INHERENT in the belief. Before I placed my faith in Jesus Christ alone for salvation several years ago, I was confused about this as well and basically defined faith "as" obedience/works and the end result was works-salvation.As I have pointed out many times, the word for believe in the passages above is the Greek pistis which means faith. It is not a mental assent "belief", but an action filled, evidence producing faith in Christ that brings salvation. This applies to John 1:12; 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 1 John 5:13.
Now I heard certain people who attend the church of Christ say that we are saved through belief "conjoined with works" as I at one time had temporarily attended the church of Christ in my late teen years. Faith in the churches of Christ seems to be understood as nothing more than ‘intellectual assent” or accepting the facts of the Christian faith. To them it is believing God’s historical testimony about Himself, Jesus Christ, and of the rest of the Bible, but no mention of trusting in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. I have even heard a CoC preacher cite that “even the devils believe” (from James 2:19) in his sermon and contend that even the "faith of devils" is the same as any other faith except that the faith of devils lacks any good works. Those who believe such nonsense obviously cannot grasp a deeper faith which trusts in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. This also explains why such people have so much faith in "water and works" for salvation.
Someone on a Christian forum who attends the church of Christ once made this statement to me - "It is works of obedience that help to save us and not works of the law or works of merit." That's the classic saved by "these" works and just not "those" works argument that I often hear from works-salvationists. So how many works must we accomplish and "add" as a supplement to Christ's finished work of redemption in order to help Christ save us? I asked that question to the man who made that statement, but he had no answer.
We are saved through faith in Christ FIRST then the actions "follow" as the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of faith, but not as the essence of faith and also not as the basis or means by which we obtain salvation. You keep basically defining faith "as" the actions which "follow" then you teach that the believer is saved by BOTH faith AND works. This continues to remain your achilles heel.Acts 15:8-9, 26:18, Rom 3:24-28, 5:1, Gal 2:16, Eph 2:8-9, Philippians 3:9 all refer directly to faith, which requires action. Salvation (a purified heart) is received through faith.
This belief in Acts 10:43 goes beyond mere "mental assent" belief, such as - I believe that Jesus Christ exists, is the Son of God and that His death, burial and resurrection "happened." Even the demons believe that. We must also trust in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of our salvation in order for this to become saving belief. (Romans 1:16; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4) Repentance (change of mind) is required for salvation and this change of mind precedes saving belief in Christ. Two sides to the same coin. When only believe in regards to obtaining salvation in Scripture is mention, repentance is implied or assumed because it precedes saving belief.In Acts 10:43, it is clear that this cannot be a simple mental assent belief, because you have already said that repentance is required for forgiveness of sin (Acts 3:19) and this passage only says believe to receive forgiveness. Clearly not every passage that speaks of the requirements for salvation mention everything necessary to receive it.
More eisegesis on your part. The washing of rebirth is a reference to spiritual washing or purification of the soul that is accomplished by the Holy Spirit through the word of God at the moment of salvation. Water in Scripture does not always refer to baptism, but is also used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such is associated with cleansing or washing. Baptism does not avail to cleanse the heart from defilement, but our Lord did say, "Now ye are clean through the word (not through plain ordinary H20) which I have spoken unto you." (John 15:3)Titus 3:5, written to people who already know the Gospel, says that we are saved by the washing of rebirth (baptism) and the renewal of the Holy Spirit. Yes, the washing of rebirth refers to baptism.
In Ephesians 5:26, we see washing of water by the word (not by plain ordinary H20).
Also in 1 Peter 1:22, we read - having been born again, not of corruptible seed but incorruptible, through the word of God (not through plain ordinary H20) which lives and abides forever.
Jesus uses the word "water" in John 4:10,14 and qualifies what He means by it -- "living water." Jesus uses the word "water" not the term "baptism" in John 3:5 and since Jesus connects "living water" with receiving everlasting life in John 4:10,14; 7:37-39, it makes much more sense that water in John 3:5 refers to living water, rather than plain ordinary H20, which does not flow through our heart and has no power to cleanse the heart. If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again.
The Bible clearly states in Titus 3:5 that it is not by works of righteousness which we have done, (literally, "of works which are done in righteousness" which includes water baptism Matthew 3:13-15. Jesus was water baptized to fulfill all righteousness so water baptism is a work of righteousness and Titus 3:5 fully refutes the doctrine of salvation by water baptism. *Hermeneutics*We can understand this because this book (letter) was written much later than many of the other books, and Paul would have expected his readers to have, know, and have studied writings where baptism was described, and his direct teaching.
Ephesians 2:8,9 clearly states what we must DO. Place our faith in Jesus Christ for salvation and not in works.2 Timothy 1:9 does not mean that we do not have to DO anything to receive His grace.
The contradiction is produced from teaching that we are saved by BOTH faith AND WORKS which is not supported by Scripture. (Romans 4:2-6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9; Philippians 3:9 etc..).It means what it says, that His grace was given before we were even created, thus we could not have done anything to cause Him to give His grace. But it would contradict other Scripture to say we don't have to take any action whatsoever to receive it.
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