The Sabbath: Universal law or Mosaic shadow?

[LoveGodsWord]

….where Scripture says the Sabbath has been abolished, the short answer would be Colossians 2:16-17. However, I believe I should explain myself further. You provided a thorough, in-depth answer to my Question 2, and now I'd like to provide a thorough answer to your Question 1. Let's see what Scripture has to say on the subject.

I think I will spend some time on your claims in regard to Colossians 2:16 being a reference to Gods’ 4th commandment as it seems that this scripture is the foundation to most of your responses and arguments, you’re making in all of your posts. So, it would be good to examine these claims in detail to see if Gods’ 4th commandment is a “shadow law” of anything. If not, what is Colossians 2:16 referring to from the old covenant and what is the within scripture contexts of Colossians 2:16 that is referenced as being “shadows of things to come in Colossian 2:17. So let’s spend some time here to see if Colossians 2 is saying that God’s 4th commandment was a shadow of things to come. I will start off by saying that respectfully disagree with your claims here that Colossians 2:16-17 is saying that God’s 4th commandment has been abolished but allow me to explain why from the scriptures and look at the scripture contexts and what Paul is talking about by directly referencing the same scriptures from the Old Testament which Paul was referring to.

According to the scriptures, there were many different types of sabbaths (plural) that were not the same as God’s 4th commandment and had a different purpose to God’s 4th commandment of God’s 10 commandments? For example, there were many different types of ceremonial sabbaths in the old covenant that that were linked directly to the annual Feast days. None of these however are in reference to Gods' weekly Sabbath which is one of God's 10 commandments that give us the knowledge of what sin is when broken according to Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4 and James 2:10-11.

These annual ceremonial “shadow sabbaths” connected to the annual Feast days were the “shadows of things to come” (Colossians 2:16-17) because they connected directly linked to the annual Feast days. These included; (1) Feast of Unleavened Bread (first and last days were holy convocations where no work was to b done) *Leviticus 23:6-8 (2) Feast of Trumpets *Leviticus 23:24-25 (3) Day of Atonement *Leviticus 23:27-32 (4) Feast of Booths *Leviticus 23:34-36 (5) Feast of First Fruits *Leviticus 23:39 (6) Feast days of Holy convocation of no work (sabbaton Colossians 2:16 *Leviticus 23:7-8; 21;24; 27; 35-36. All of the above including God’s 4th commandment were linked directly into the annual Feast days *Leviticus 23:3.

As shown above there were ceremonial sabbaths in the annual Feast days that were connected directly to the Feast days which could fall on any day of the week depending on the yearly cycle. These ceremonial sabbaths were not the same as Gods' 4th commandment that is also outside of the old covenant Feast days. The difference between God’s 4th commandment Sabbath of creation and the annual ceremonial Feast sabbaths (plural) is that Gods’ 4th commandment is linked only to the “seventh day” of creation every “seventh day” of the week on a continual weekly cycle, where as the ceremonial sabbaths in the Feast days are only linked directly to specific annual Feast days and observed at one time every year. Now lets look at the within scripture context of Colossians 2:16 and what Paul is referring to from the old covenant scriptures.

COLOSSIANS 2:16 [16], Let no man therefore judge you in (1) MEAT OR IN DRINK, or in respect of an (2) HOLY DAY (ἑορτή; G1859; Feast day; Festival; Feast), or of (3) THE NEW MOON, or of (4) THE SABBATH DAYS (sabbaths plural; noun genitive neuter plural in the Greek)

According to the scriptures, the context of Colossians 2:16 is that the meat and the drink offerings of the new moons and the feast days and their sabbaths…

COLOSSIANS 2:17 are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.

The within scripture context of Colossians 2:16 is that the meat and drink offerings and the new moons and the sabbaths (plural) in the Feast days are the “shadows of things to come” but the body us of Christ. That is, because the annual Feasts were all shadows pointing to Jesus as the promised Messiah and His work on our behalf in the new covenant as Jesus as our great High Priest who now ministers on our behalf in the heavenly Sanctuary that the Lord pitched and not man (see Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:1-13; Hebrews 9:1-27 and Hebrews 10:1-22) they are now fulfilled in that to which they pointed to Christ!

Let’s look now to what Paul in Colossians 2:16 is quoting directly from in the old covenant scripture in Ezekial 45 which says…

EZEKIEL 45:17-21, It shall be the prince’s duty to furnish the burnt offerings, (1) MEAT OFFERING AND DRINK OFFERINGS, at the (2) FEASTS, the (3) NEW MOONS, and the (4) SABBATH{S}, AT ALL THE APPOINTED (2) FEASTS OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL: he shall provide the sin offerings, grain offerings, burnt offerings, and peace offerings, to make atonement on behalf of the house of Israel: he shall prepare the sin offering, and the meat offering, and the burnt offering, and the peace offerings, to make reconciliation for the house of Israel. Thus says the Lord GOD; In the first month, in the first day of the month, thou shalt take a young bullock without blemish, and cleanse the sanctuary: And the priest shall take of the blood of the sin offering, and put it upon the posts of the house, and upon the four corners of the settle of the altar, and upon the posts of the gate of the inner court. And so thou shalt do the seventh day of the month for every one that erred, and for him that is simple: so shall ye reconcile the house. In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the Passover, a Feast of seven days; unleavened bread shall be eaten.

Note the same words used from Ezekiel 45:17 and Colossians 2:16 and their link to the old covenant laws for remission of sins in burnt offerings and animal sacrifices for sin atonement.

And again note the following old covenant scriptures…

1 CHRONICLES 23:31 and whenever (1) burnt offerings were presented to the LORD on the (4) Sabbaths, at the (3) New Moon (2) feasts and at the appointed festivals. They were to serve before the LORD regularly in the proper number and in the way prescribed for them.

2 CHRONICLES 2:4 [4] Now I am about to build a temple for the Name of the LORD my God and to dedicate it to him for burning fragrant incense before him, for setting out the consecrated bread regularly, and for making (1) burnt offerings every morning and evening and on the (4) Sabbaths, at the (3) New Moons and at the appointed (2) festivals of the LORD our God. This is a lasting ordinance for Israel.

HOSEA 2:11 [11], I WILL STOP ALL HER CELEBRATIONS: her (2) yearly festivals, her (3) New Moons, her (4) Sabbaths and all her (2) appointed festivals.

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SUMMARY: Colossians 2:16-17 is that the meat and drink offerings and the new moons and the sabbaths (plural) in the Feast days which are the “shadows of things to come” but the body is of Christ. That is because the annual Feasts days were all Mosiac “shadow laws” from the book of the covenant (Exodus 24:7) linked to the old covenant earthly Sanctuary’s laws for remission of sins pointing to Jesus as the promised Messiah and His work on our behalf in the heavenly Sanctuary, as our great High Priest that the Lord pitched and not man (see Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:1-13; Hebrews 9:1-27 and Hebrews 10:1-22), they are all now fulfilled and continued in Christ. They were the “shadows” pointing to “the body” of Christ who has now arrived. Hosea is saying that God is putting an end to all the things mentioned in Colossians 2:16 that were pointing to Jesus. The sabbaths in the Feast days that are being brough to an end are those linked directly in the Feast days and the old covenant laws for remission of sins. Not God’s 4th commandments which is outside of the annual Feast days that points backwards, not forwards to things to come. *Exodus 20:8-11. You’re mixing up the “ceremonial shadow sabbaths” in the Feast days with God’s eternal Sabbath *Exodus 31:16 that will be continued to be kept forever in the new earth (Isaiah 66:22-23) of Gods’ 10 commandments (Exodus 20:8-11) that give us the knowledge of what sin is when broken (Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7) under the new covenant (Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27).

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WHY IS IT IMPOSSIBLE FOR THE SABBATH OF CREATION TO BE A “SHADOW”?

The above scriptures and the within scripture contexts proves that Colossians 2:16 is talking about meat and drink offerings and the new moons and the sabbaths (plural) IN THE FEAST DAYS. These being all shadows of things to come – the body of Christ. What I want to do now is to show why it is impossible for God’s 4th commandment “seventh day” creation Sabbath to be a “shadow law” of anything.

According to the scriptures, is impossible that Colossians 2:16 is in reference to God's 4th commandment as it points backwards as a “memorial” of the "finished work of creation" not forwards to things to come *Genesis 2:1-3; Colossians 2:17. All the “shadow laws” where only given to mankind as a part of God’s plan of salvation for mankind after the fall of mankind and sin entered the world. There was no sin and no law and no plan of salvation for unfallen man when the Sabbath was made for mankind *Mark 2:27; Genesis 2:1-3. Now notice something very important. God's 4th commandment does not point forward to things to come as stated in Colossians 2:17 it points backward (Remember the Sabbath day to keep it Holy - Exodus 20:8). Gods’ 4th commandment points backwards because it is a memorial of the finished work of creation before sin entered the world and is a celebration of God as the creator of heaven and earth.

Lets look at the commandment that points backward not forwards...

Exodus 20:8-11 [8], REMEMBER [memorial pointing backwards not forwards to things to come] the SABBATH DAY, to KEEP IT HOLY. <Why?> {Because it is a memorial looking back to the finished work of creation that JESUS made as a Holy day of rest for mankind and commands us to keep it as a Holy day} [9], Six days shalt thou labor, and do all thy work: [10], But the SEVENTH DAY IS THE SABBATH of the LORD thy God {This is a direct reference from God's Word defining what the Sabbath is; The SABBATH = the SEVENTH DAY OF THE WEEK}: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates: <WHY> [11], For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the SEVENTH DAY: wherefore the LORD BLESSED THE SABBATH, and HALLOWED IT. {Reference is backward to Genesis 2:1-3 not forward to things to come}

Therefore, it is impossible for God's 4th commandment seventh day Sabbath to be a "shadow law" as all the "shadow laws" are laws to do with God's plan of salvation from sin after the fall of mankind from the Mosaic book of the law. God's Sabbath was created when there was no sin, no fall, no law and no plan of salvation because mankind was in perfect harmony with God. – So there is nothing in Colossians 2:16 that is evidence that it is in reference to Gods’ 4th commandment not being a requirement for Christian living in the new testament.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

We probably do not need to go any further than that last posts above that prove that Colossians 2:16 is not a reference to God’s 4th commandment but to the “shadow laws” linked to the old covenant earthly Sanctuary and the new moons that determine God’s appointed times in the annual Feast days and their ceremonial sabbaths that are all linked to the old covenant laws for remission of sins through the Leviticual Priesthood, animal sacrifices and sin offerings etc but I will make some comments on the rest of your posts out of good faith with a detailed scripture critique as promised.

Genesis
The first book of the Bible begins by giving an account of the origin of the Universe. While all Scripture is for everyone's benefit (2 Timothy 3:16-17), it's also important to know the original audience of a book that we're reading. For example, 1 and 2 Timothy were written to Timothy, while 1 and 2 Corinthians were written to the church at Corinth. In the same way, while Genesis is for everyone's benefit, it was written by Moses for the Israelites, and thus, they're the original audience. The Book of Genesis, then, is written from a Jewish point of view.

According to the scriptures Gods’ Word is specifically for God’s people because in the new covenant there is now no separation between Jews and Gentile believers in Christ because all are now one in Christ and Jesus has broken down the middle wall of separation making all now one body of believers in Gods’ Word (see Ephesians 2:10-19). Therefore, to us “believers” in God’s Word “All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness.” – 2 Timothy 3:16 and again “all these things happened to them for examples: and they are written for our admonition, on whom the ends of the world are come.

According to Gods’ Word in the new covenant scriptures a Jew is no longer someone that is born of the flesh of the seed of Abraham but is but everyone that has been born of the Spirit to believe Gods’ Word through faith *Romans 2:28-29; Romans 9:6-8. Therefore, what makes us Abraham’s seed today is faith in God’s Word according to Gods’ promise of salvation. (See Galatians 3:28-29). Therefore, all of God’s Word is for all of Gods’ people who have been born again to walk in Gods’ Spirit through faith (2 Timothy 3:16; Ephesians 2:10-19; Romans 9:6-8; John 3:3-7; Galatians 5:16).

According to the scripture sin is defined as the transgression of God’s law and not believing and following what God’s Word says in 1 John 3:4 and Romans 14:23. Those who have been born of God to walk in God’s Spirit do not practice sin (breaking God’s law and not believing God’s Word) according to John in 1 John 3:3-9. Sin (breaking God’s law and not believing God’s Word) according to the scriptures is the difference between the children of God and the children of the devil in 1 John 3:9-10; see also Revelation 12:17; Revelation 14:12 and Revelation 22:14. Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God. The Word of God therefore is for everyone that chooses to believe and follow Gods’ Word.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

The Book begins by explaining how God created the Universe (Genesis 1:1). This would be good for everyone to know at the time Genesis was written, but especially for Israel since they needed to know that their God is the God of everything, as opposed to idols, who were allegedly gods over specific things (love, light, death, etc.).

The book of Genesis is good for everyone of God’s people to know because it shows to everyone that believes and follows Gods Word the origin of creation, sin and the fall of mankind and what happens afterwards, and the revelation of God’s plan of salvation for all mankind who choose to believe and follow what God’s Word says. This is needed as it shows God as the creator of heaven and earth in Genesis 1. It shows the origin of the creation week and God as the creator of heaven and earth resting on the “seventh day” of the week (Sabbath) and that God set apart the “seventh day” and blessed the “seventh day” of the week as a holy day for all mankind (Genesis 1:26-31; Genesis 2:1-3).

It also shows the continued rebellion of mans departure from God and that man continued to become more and more evil against God and that the world become so evil that it needed to be destroyed by a flood *Genesis 6:5-8. Yet during all these times of mankind's rebellion against God, there was always a people that believed and followed Gods’ Word (e.g. Genesis 5:24; Hebrews 11:5; Genesis 6:8; Genesis 19:14; Genesis 26:5; Genesis 39:7-9 etc too many to list). So once again under the new covenant promises, God’s Word is for all of God’s people who believe and follow what God’s Word says because our faith comes by hearing and hearing by the Word of God *Romans 10:17. God's Israel are simply all those who believe and follow God's Word.

Many things happen during the creation week, but let's focus specifically on Days 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. On Day 3, we're told that dry land and seas were created (Genesis 1:9-10), as well as vegetation (Genesis 1:11-13). On Day 4, the sun, moon, and starts are created (Genesis 1:14-19). They were created with a purpose; while time certainly existed before the sun, moon, and starts did, the lights were designed for future use, to determine days, months, years, signs, and seasons.

There was no time before the sun and the moon as it is the sun and the moon and the rotation of the earth that determines time. God is outside of time and it does not apply to him but that said the sun and the moon were indeed made at creation in Genesis 1:14-19 to determine time as we know it to show the days, months, years and the seasons.

Since the audience were Jews, it's likely that the "seasons" refer either exclusively to, or at least include, "the sacred seasons as fixed by moon's appearance" (Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon), looking forward to how they'd need the sky lights. The "Scripture interpreting Scripture" approach would suggest this in "light" (no pun intended) of Psalm 104:19, where the moon in particular is made for "seasons." The moon doesn't by itself cause spring, summer, fall/autumn, and winter, but it can be used by itself to determine the sacred seasons. In fact, if Genesis 1:14 refers to spring, summer, fall/autumn, and winter, it'd be the only place in the entire Bible I know of where mo‘ed [H4150] is translated "seasons" that would have that sense of the word. I don't know of a single other passage where mo‘ed [H4150] refers to spring, summer, fall/autumn, and winter.

I posted on this earlier and provided you with the Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon reference you provided above. Psalms 104:19 states that [19], He appointed the moon for seasons: the sun knows his going down. So letting all of the scriptures interpret scripture we must take God at his Word. So how exactly does the moon determine the seasons of the year (spring, summer, autumn and winter)? The moon measures the months of the years that determine the seasons of the year. According to Genesis 1:14 the creation week scriptures it is the sun and the moon together that determines that seasons of the year. Genesis 1:14 And God said, Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night; and let them [sun and moon] be for signs, and for seasons, and for days, and years

So the Jewish audience combined with the word usage of mo‘ed [H4150] agree that the verse either refers specifically to sacred Jewish seasons, or at least includes them. With this in mind, it points not just a few days in the future, but to centuries in the future. This is because something can be made "for" someone without them receiving it till a future point.

According to the scriptures, the creation account does not account for sin as mankind had not been created and neither had he sinned and fallen away from Gods’ grace as he had not yet even been created. Mankinds sin and departed from God did not happen until after he was created on the sixth day of the creation week, and he did not sin until after God made the Sabbath for all mankind on the “seventh day” of the creation week (see Genesis 1:26-31; Genesis 2:1-3 and Genesis 3:1-5). God did not outline his plan of salvation for all of mankind until after the fall in Genesis 3:14-15. Therefore it is impossible for Genesis 1:14 to be referring specifically to the annual Feast days in place of “seasons” as appointed times in Genesis 1:14 because mankind had not yet sinned and the annual Feast days were a part of God’s plan of salvation for the sins of mankind.

That said as posted earlier to you, when using Hebrew and Greek word meaning it is the context and application that determines the word meanings and application not definitions outside of context which is why the majority of bible translations translate the Hebrew word מוֺעֵד (moed: H4150) as "seasons" in the English for Genesis 1:14. Of course this same word has meaning and application in scripture context to God’s appointed times of the annual Feast days. However, this came latter and is different in context and subject matter to Genesis 1:14. The application of Genesis 1:14 is to מוֺעֵד (moed: H4150) is to God’s appointed times of the seasons of the year made by God as determined by the sun and the moon which is the creation context of the scriptures in Genesis 1:14.

In other scripture context the Hebrew word מוֺעֵד (moed: H4150) is translated and applied to the Mosaic covenants annual Feast days which are also "appointed times" of the year just like the context of and scripture application of מוֺעֵד (moed: H4150) was to "seasons" in Genesis 1:14. Both events (seasons and annual Feasts of the Mosaic covenant) were "Gods appointed times" but the creation appointed times in Genesis 1:14 were to the "seasons" of the year determined by the sun and the moon, while the annual Feast days of the old covenant were to God's appointed times for his people to meet together. It is impossible for Genesis 14 to be a reference to the annual Feast days because at creation there was no sin, no law, no mankind, no plan of salvation given because there was no sin. Also the annual Feast days did not go for a season. I am now sure how any of this relates to providing scripture for question 1 but was happy to discuss it.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

On Days 5 and 6, various animals were created (Genesis 1:20-25). However, distinct from animals and made in the image of God is man, who also was created on Day 6 (Genesis 1:26-27). It wasn't until now that the herbs, sky lights, and animals could be used by man (Genesis 1:28-31). So while God made things for Adam and his descendants, they weren't given until later. My point in all this is that the time something is "made" doesn't necessarily prove 1) who it's for or 2) when it's given.

Everything provided on the first six days in God’s creation Genesis 1:1-25 was needed and provided for the survival of mankind after he was created in Genesis 1:26-31. It is the scripture subject matter and context that determines when 1) God makes something and 2) when it is given. In regard to the seventh day of creation mankind needed to know first that God was the creator of all things in heaven and earth if Adam and Eve were to enter into Gods Sabbath rest that he made, blessed and set apart as a holy day of rest for all mankind at creation (Mark 2:27; Genesis 2:1-3). For me it is not biblical to teach that God made the Sabbath for all of mankind as Jesus stated in Mark 2:27 when mankind was made on the 6th day of the creation week and God makes the Sabbath for mankind on the “seventh day” of the creation week only to not give to to mankind until Exodus 20 as one of God’s 10 commandments. That is like saying that no one knew God’s law pre Mt Sinai but we know that the scriptures specifically state that is not true in Genesis 26:5. Therefore to me God created the Sabbath for mankind who was created on the 6th day of the week in Genesis 1:26-31 on the “seventh day” of the week in Genesis 2:1-3 where he blessed and set the “seventh day” of the weel apart from all the other days of the week as a holy day of rest for all mankind (Mark 2:27).

This brings us to Day 7, where God is shown to rest (Genesis 2:1-2). He blesses and sanctifies the seventh day (Genesis 2:3). Does this mean anything for us? Genesis doesn't say whether it does, but it does say that God blessed the seventh day and rested on it. It doesn't say whether Adam and Eve rested on the Sabbath or whether it was just a day for God at this point in time. Anything more we learn about the seventh day must be learned from other passages, which we'll get to soon. Is there an application for us? Again, the text in Genesis doesn't say.

According to the scriptures Genesis 2:1-3 means that God made the Sabbath for mankind on the “seventh day” of the creation week and that God’s “seventh day” creation Sabbath is now linked directly into the continuous weekly cycle throughout every week of the year. God did not “bless” or make the “seventh day” of the week a “holy day” for himself. According to Jesus he made it for mankind (Mark 2:27) as a day of rest and a memorial of creation and a celebration of God as the creator of heaven and earth. God has written His seventh day Sabbath as a memorial of creation for all the world to see that he is the only true God of heaven and earth. Of course he made it for Adam and Eve. Jesus says that the Sabbath was made for mankind in Mark 2:27. Adam and Eve were made on the sixth day of the creation week *Genesis 1:26-31. God made the Sabbath for mankind on “the seventh day” of the creation week where he blessed it and made the “seventh day” of the week a “holy day” of rest for all mankind according to the scriptures in Genesis 2:1-3. This is indeed what the scriptures say.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

There are two different interpretations people have made about God resting on the seventh day and sanctifying it: 1. God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it specifically with His special people, the nation of Israel. This view seems to be the one held by the Jewish audience. Or at least, it's the view held by the Jewish author of Jubilees (pseudepigrapha.com/jubilees/2.htm, notice particularly verses 16-17, 31-32).

I do not have a problem with any of these views to be honest but allow me to explain why. I will just pass the comment though that the book of Jubilees is not scripture it is Apocrypha of unknown origins written in between the old and the new testament scriptures. The text here starts off by saying “And the angel of the presence spake to Moses according to the word of the Lord, saying: Write the complete history of the creation, how in six days the Lord God finished all His works and all that He created, and kept Sabbath on the seventh day and hallowed it for all ages, and appointed it as a sign for all His works.” This is the context of what you provided above. So the text is not saying that the Sabbath was made at creation only for Israel. That would be in contradiction of what Jesus says in Mark 2:27 where he says that the Sabbath was made for mankind. The evidence here is that there was no Jew, no Israel, no sin, no law and no plan of salvation given when God made the Sabbath for all mankind at creation *Genesis 2:1-3. Keep in mind here there was also no nations to keep the Sabbath here only Adam and Eve the very first of all mankind. According to the scripture as shown earlier, Gods’ Word of course is only for Gods’ people. God’s people are represented by Israel in the flesh born of the seed of Abraham in the Old Testament scriptures and Gods’ Israel in the new covenant are represented as all those who have now been born again in the Spirit to believe and follow Gods’ Word says *Romans 9:6-8; Romans 2:28-29; Galatians 3:28-29. So understanding who Gods Israel is here shows is in harmony with the scriptures showing that Gods Israel are only all those who believe and follow what Gods’ Word says. This is what the scriptures teach.

1. God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it with all mankind. This is the view that I believe you hold to.

Absolutely, but you still cannot see how both views are correct by not understanding who Gods’ Israel is in the new covenant. According to the scriptures and not reading into the scriptures, Jesus says that the Sabbath, which was made on the "seventh day" of the creation week *Genesis 2:1-3, for mandkind ἄνθρωπος (ánthrōpos G444 human beings) *Mark 2:27 and that he is the Lord (creator) of it *Mark 2:28; John 1:1-4; 14; Colossians 1:16. There was no Moses, no Jews, no Israel, no sin and no plan of salvation for mankind because mankind never sinned when God made the Sabbath for all mankind on the "seventh day" of the creation week *Genesis 2:1-3. Because there was no sin there was no Mosaic "shadow laws", only Adam and Eve who were created on the sixth day of the creation week (see Genesis 1:26-31 and Genesis 2:1-3).

Since Jews in particular were the original audience, it's at least somewhat significant that the Jewish author of Jubilees doesn't see any conflict with 1) God making the seventh day holy and 2) the Sabbath being specifically for the Jews, not Gentiles. Who's to say that his interpretation is wrong and yours is correct? I'm sure we'd agree that it isn't us but the word of God itself that's the ultimate authority on what it means. Since Genesis itself doesn't say which interpretation is the correct one, we must go elsewhere. So let's do that!

This was already addressed in the previous section. As posted earlier I do not have a problem with any of these views to be honest. This is because if we understand who God’s Israel is in the old and the new covenant scriptures you will see the Gods’ Israel simply is a name given by God that represents all those who believe and follow what God’s Word says. See the detailed scripture response to this section posted earlier. Of course, all of God’s Words are only for those who believe and follow them. Gods’ Words are not for those who do not believe and do not follow them. Those represent the wicked who do not believe and follow God’s Word.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Mark 2:27
This is a passage you brought up which, you argue, answers the question of who the Sabbath was made for. I will concede that it says the Sabbath was "made" for man and that it was made for "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos). In other words, I agree that the Sabbath was made, and the recipient of the Sabbath is man (Greek, ánthrōpos).

Agreed, this is what the scriptures teach so we should believe them.

However, there are two things to consider. First, just because the Sabbath was made doesn't tell us who it was for.

According to the scriptures, Jesus tells us exactly who the scriptures were made for in Mark 2:27 where he says that the Sabbath was made for man (mandkind ἄνθρωπος; ánthrōpos G444 human beings). When God made the Sabbath for mankind there was only Adam and Eve representing the parents of all mankind created on the 6th day of the creation week as shown in Genesis 1:26-31.

In fact, even knowing when the Sabbath was made doesn't tell us who it's for! The author of Jubilees, for example, didn't see any contradiction with 1) the seventh day rest beginning at the end of the creation week and 2) the Sabbath being for the Jews specifically, not the Gentiles, so why should we unless Scripture says so? Another point worth considering is that, if the Sabbath were an eternal law without beginning or end, how is it the case that it was "made"? This suggests that it isn't a timeless law, but one with a beginning.

See previous sections. As posted earlier according to the scriptures, if we understand who God’s Israel is in the old and the new covenant scriptures we see that Gods’ Israel simply is a name given by God that represents all those who believe and follow what God’s Word says. Of course, all of God’s Words are only for those who believe and follow them. Gods’ Words are not for those who do not believe and do not follow them. Those represent the wicked who do not believe and follow God’s Word. God’s Israel according to the scriptures are simply those who believe and follow what God’s Word says (Romans 9:6-8; Romans 3:28-29 and Galatians 3:28-29)

Second, even the fact that it was made for "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) doesn't necessarily prove the audience is all mankind (though, if this were the only passage on the Sabbath, I'd say it'd serve as a good argument favoring all mankind as the recipients of the Sabbath). The reason I say this is because whenever "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) is used in connection with a practice that's clearly part of the now-obsolete old covenant, which was just for physical Israel, then "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) actually refers to "the Jews," not "all mankind."

As posted to you earlier it is the scripture context that determines word meaning and application to subject matter. When Jesus says that the Sabbath was made for mankind *Mark 2:27 there was no Jews, no Israel no Moses, no sin, no law no plan of salvation given to mankind because mankind had not yet sinned. There was only Adam and Eve made in the image of God representing the first of all mankind that Jesus made the Sabbath for on the seventh day of the creation week (Genesis 1:26-31: Genesis 2:1-3). So the subject matter here proves that the Sabbath was made and given to mankind at creation.

Proof for this includes the fact that in John 7:22-23, Jesus says the Jews would "circumcise a man [Greek, anthropos] on the Sabbath" (NKJV, emphasis mine). Also, Hebrews 5:1-3 says that every high priest is taken from among "men" (Greek, anthropos) and appointed for "men" (Greek, anthropos) to offer sacrifices for sins, including his own sin. Also, Hebrews 7:28 explains that "the law appoints men [Greek, anthropos] as high priests who have weakness," (WEB, emphasis mine). I'm sure we agree that since these three passages all refer to obsolete practices of the old covenant, which were just for physical Israel, then "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) in these three passages actually refers to "the Jews," not "all mankind." This is because, as you've said, context is key in knowing what a word means, and the context demands the sense of "Jews" in John 7:22-23, Hebrews 5:1-3, and Hebrews 7:28. However, while we agree on these three passages, is the same true in Mark 2:27? Here's how we can tell, using the principle we just established for the other three passages

For me this is not proof at all. As posted earlier context and subject matter with prayerful help from God’s Spirit, determine word meanings for scripture interpretation. Firstly, a Jew is also a part of mankind [Greek, anthropos]. This is the context and application of John 7:22-23. As posted earlier, the context and subject matter here and application of man [Greek, anthropos] in John 7:22-23 is to circumcision (subject matter). Circumcision was not given to God’s people of the old covenant at creation but was given to Abraham of the sign of the covenant that God made with him and His seed that shall become a great nation (Genesis 17:9-14). There was no Abraham, no Jew, no Israel no Moses, no sin, and no plan of salvation given because there was no sin and no circumcision because there was no covenant given to those who believed and followed Gods’ Word at creation. Only Adam and Eve created on the 6th day of the creation week *Genesis 1:26-31 that God made the Sabbath for on the “seventh day” of the creation week in Genesis 2:1-3.

If the Sabbath is a practice that's specifically for physical Israel, part of the obsolete old covenant and not for everyone, then "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) in Mark 2:27 refers to "the Jews," not "all mankind." So that's the key. Again, if the Scriptures teach that the Sabbath is specifically for physical Israel in connection with the obsolete old covenant, not something for everyone, then "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) in Mark 2:27 doesn't mean anything more than it means in John 7:22-23, Hebrews 5:1-3, or Hebrews 7:28—that is, "Jews."

According to the scripture in the very words of Jesus the Sabbath was made for man (mandkind ἄνθρωπος; ánthrōpos G444 human beings) *Mark 2:27. The scriptures do not say anywhere that the Sabbath was made for Jews or physical Israel. This is reading into the scriptures what the scriptures do not say and do not teach. The evidence of this is in Genesis 1:26-31 and Genesis 2:1-3 where God created the Sabbath for mandkind ἄνθρωπος; ánthrōpos G444 human beings

As Jesus says on the “seventh day” of the creation week. According to the scriptures when God created the Sabbath on the “seventh day” of the creation week, there was no Abraham, no Isaac, no Jacob, no Moses, no Jew, no Israel, no law, no sin and no plan of salvation given. There was only Adam and Eve representing the first of all mankind made in the image of God created on the 6th day of the creation week (Genesis 1:26-31) that God made the Sabbath for on the “seventh day” of the creation week that he blessed and set aside as a holy day of rest for all mankind *Genesis 2:1-3.

more to come....

 

[LoveGodsWord]

If With this in mind, let's see what other Scriptures say on the matter.

The intended recipients of the Sabbath

As said earlier, the reason God rested on the seventh day isn't said in Genesis. Because Genesis doesn't come out and say why, two interpretations are advocated:

1. God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it specifically with His special people, the nation of Israel. Again, this is the view apparently held by the Jewish audience. Or at least, it's the view held by the Jewish author of Jubilees (pseudepigrapha.com/jubilees/2.htm, notice particularly verses 16-17, 31-32).

2. God did this to make the seventh day holy and to share it with all mankind. This is the view that I believe you hold to.

This is repetition already addressed in a previous section, but I will touch on it again here. As posted earlier, I do not have a problem with any of these views to be honest but allow me to explain why. Firstly the book of Jubilees is not scripture it is Apocrypha of unknown origins written in between the old and the new testament scriptures. Keep in mind here I do not disagree with anything written here either. The text here starts off by saying “And the angel of the presence spake to Moses according to the word of the Lord, saying: Write the complete history of the creation, how in six days the Lord God finished all His works and all that He created, and kept Sabbath on the seventh day and hallowed it for all ages, and appointed it as a sign for all His works.” This is the context of what you provided above.

So the text is not saying that the Sabbath was made at creation only for Israel. That would be in contradiction of what Jesus says in Mark 2:27 where he says that the Sabbath was made for mankind. The evidence here is that there was no Jew, no Israel, no sin, no law and no plan of salvation given when God made the Sabbath for all mankind at creation *Genesis 2:1-3. Keep in mind here there was also no nations to keep the Sabbath here only Adam and Eve the very first of all mankind. According to the scripture as shown earlier, Gods’ Word of course is only for Gods’ people.

God’s people are represented by Israel in the flesh born of the seed of Abraham in the Old Testament scriptures and Gods’ Israel in the new covenant are represented as all those who have now been born again in the Spirit to believe and follow Gods’ Word says *Romans 9:6-8; Romans 2:28-29; Galatians 3:28-29. So understanding who Gods Israel is here shows is in harmaony with the scriptures showing that Gods Israel are only all those who believe and follow what Gods’ Word says. This is what the scriptures teach.

In order to know what interpretation is right, we need the Scriptures to tell us.

Respectfully, as shown through the scriptures already both interpretations are correct if you understand who Gods Israel represents in the old and the new covenant and that the name Israel that God gave to His people is simply a name given by God to all those who believe and follow what God’s Word says (Romans 9:6-8; Romans 2:28-29 and Galatians 3:28-29). Gods’ Word is for believers not unbelievers. According to the scriptures the name Israel and it’s use can be traced all through the old and new covenant where it simply represents all that believe and follow what Gods Word says (more scripture support here linked).

Interestingly, the word "Sabbath" never appears in Genesis. God clearly rested on the seventh day, but even in that section, the word "Sabbath" isn't used.

Simply, this is because there was no Sabbath before the creation of the Sabbath in Genesis 2:1-3. The root word of “Sabbath” is שָׁבַת (shâbath | H7673) which is translated as “rested or rest” in English from Genesis 2:2-3 and it is the verb form of Sabbath or how the Sabbath (noun) is kept by resting. The Hebrew word שָׁבַת (shâbath | H7673) literally means to keep the Sabbath by resting. It is how the Sabbath is kept and is a verb. The word translated at Sabbath is שַׁבָּת (shabbâth | H7676) which comes from שָׁבַת (shâbath | H7673) is the noun of what is being kept through resting and simply is a description or name of what is being kept through resting.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

We don't read anything about it as we go through all the rest of Genesis, with Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, and Joseph, etc. However, we do read about the Sabbath after Moses brought Israel out of Egypt. For the first time in the Bible, the word "Sabbath" is used in Exodus 16:23. Whether you'd say the Sabbath was introduced through Moses (as I'd think) or whether you'd say it was re-introduced (as maybe you'd say?), it's clear that before this, the Sabbath wasn't known by the Israelites since the Sabbath was "made known" to Israel "By the hand of Moses" (Nehemiah 9:14, NKJV). You can't "make" something known to people if it's already known to them, right?

This was already addressed some time ago in our discussion. As posted earlier you’re disregarding that fact that Jesus says that the sabbath was made for mankind and that the Sabbath was made at creation when there was only Adam and Eve representing all of mankind (Mark 2:27; Genesis 1:26-31; Genesis 2:1-3). It is true however and I agree that we are not told much about the Sabbath after it was created and given to Adam and Eve after it was created in Genesis 2:1-3. We do know however that Gods’ people had and practiced Gods’ laws because the Exodus as shown in Genesis 26:5 where God states that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws. If you look up the Hebrew word used for law here, you will see that it is תֹּורָה (tôwrâh | H8451). Yet nothing is said about God’s people knowing about God’s laws before Exodus 20. For me if according to the scriptures Gods' people were keeping God's laws before Mt Sinai as shown in Genesis 26:5 I believe it is presumption to think that they were not keeping God's Sabbath when Jesus says that the Sabbath was made for man at creation. Regardless, of whether one believes the Sabbath was kept after creation or at Mt Sinai it was given again by God as one of Gods' 10 commandments that give us the knowledge of what sin is when broken *1 John 3:4 at the Exodus *Exodus 20:8-11 so there is no argument that can be used to simply disregard what the scriptures say here of anyone of God's 10 commandments. As James teaches in the new testament scriptures, if we knowingly break anyone of Gods' 10 commandments we stand guilty before God of breaking all of them. *James 2:10-11; see also Hebrews 10:26-31.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

We Was the Sabbath to be given to all nations or to Israel? In Exodus 31:17, God says, "It is a sign between Me and the children of Israel forever; for in six days the LORD made the heavens and the earth, and on the seventh day He rested and was refreshed" (NKJV, emphasis mine). Notice, it's a "sign" between God and Israel, and the word "for" connects it with the creation week of Genesis. So this is telling us why God rested on the seventh day! If this verse had only said to keep the Sabbath, it'd be possible that nations other than the children of Israel would be expected to observe it. (I say "possible" because we'd have to look elsewhere to see if those other than Israel were commanded.) However, since Exodus 31:17 specifically says it's a "sign" between God and Israel, this makes it impossible that nations other than the children of Israel would be expected to observe it.

This was answered already. So, I will touch on it a little here again. It comes down what the scriptures teach as to who Gods Israel is in the old and the new covenants. Very simply according to the scripture Gods Israel under both the old and the new covenants is simply all those who believe and follow what God’s Word says as shown in Romans 9:6-8; Galatians 3:28-29 and Romans 2:28-29. So of course, God’s Sabbath was only given to Israel who are all those who believe and follow what God’s Word says. Gods’ Word is not given to unbelievers who do not believe and do not follow what God’s Word says. Even in God’s 4th commandment “seventh day” Sabbath commandment God make provision for people of other nations to worship and follow him in Exodus 20:10 (גֵּר (gêr | H1616) means foreigner; alien; someone from another nation. The sign of the Sabbath being given here to Israel as posted earlier is simply to all those who believe and follow God’s Word which is the scriptures definition of Israel. The rest of your post here was repetition already addressed above. If you feel I may have missed something just let me know. I do not think that most of your posts so far are answering the questions asked in post # 171 linked to be honest which is asking for scripture to support the claims that are made in them.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

All right, time for part 2!
The Ten Commandments and the law
The passage we looked at from Exodus 31 ends with us seeing that this covenant for Israel was written on two tablets of stone by God (Exodus 31:18). I assume we agree that this references the Ten Commandments. Since the Sabbath is the 4th commandment, written on stone by the finger of God Himself, does this make the commandment for everyone?

According to the scriptures Gods’ 10 commandments in the new covenant have the same role they always have and that is to give us the knowledge of good (moral right doing) and evil (moral wrong doing); sin (moral wrong doing) and righteousness (moral right doing) as shown in Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4; Psalms 119:172 and according to James if we break anyone of them we stand guilty before God of sin in James 2:10-11.

Now according to the old covenant scripture, to state that Gods’ 10 commandments was all that there is to the covenant that God gave to Israel is only telling half of the story. Of course, we are in agreement here that God’s 10 commandment were indeed a part of the covenant that God made with Israel of the old testament as shown in Exodus 34:28. What your disregarding here is that Gods’ 10 commandments was not all that there was to the old covenant that God made with the physical nation of Israel. The other part of the old covenant that God made with Israel is the Mosiac book of the covenant as shown in Exodus 24:7 (Torah, Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Deuteronomy and Numbers).

Together the old covenant given to Israel therefore included both God’s 10 commandments that give us the knowledge of good and evil; sin and righteousness and the Mosaic book of the old covenant. Together both the two tables of stone written with the finger of God and the Mosaic book of the covenant were placed in the “ark (house) of the covenant” (Deuteronomy 10:2-5; Deuteronomy 31:26). It is important here to clearly understand what made up the old covenant in order to be able to understand what makes up the new covenant. Can you see here dear friend that the old covenant was not just Gods' 10 commandments but also included the Mosaic book of the covenant (Exodus 24:7).

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[LoveGodsWord]

Again, the Ten Commandments were a sign for Israel.

Again, God’s Israel is only a name given by God to all those who believe and follow what God’s Word says. If you are not a part of God’s Israel, then you have no part in God’s new covenant promise which is only ever made to Israel as shown in Hebrews 8:10-12. (See Romans 9:6-8; Romans 3:28-29; Galatians 3:28-29; (more scripture support here linked).

While we're spiritual Israel today, spiritual Israel is under a new covenant, one different from the one given to national, physical Israel at Sinai (Hebrews 8:6-13).

Agreed but don’t forget as outlined from the scriptures already in the previous section, the old covenant was made up of not only God’s 10 commandment but also the Mosaic book of the old covenant (Exodus 24:7) and together both Gods’ 10 commandments and the Mosaic book of the covenant made up the old covenant given to physical Israel born of the flesh of the seed of Abraham.

God 10 commandments in the new covenant as shown earlier from the scriptures has the same role it always has and that is to give us the knowledge of good (moral right doing) and evil (moral wrong doing); sin (moral wrong doing) and righteousness (moral right doing) as shown in Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4; Psalms 119:172 and according to James if we break anyone of them we stand guilty before God of sin in James 2:10-11.

So what is it in the new covenant that has changed? Well, a lot of things but not God’s 10 commandments that give us the knowledge of good and evil; sin and righteousness and lead us to Christ that we might be forgiven through faith! According to the scriptures in Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:1-13; Hebrews 9:1-27 and Hebrews 10:1-22 it is the Mosaic “shadow laws” for remission of sins that have been made obsolete because they are now fulfilled in Christ to who they all pointed to.

That is the earthly Sanctuary, the Levitical Priesthood, all the laws of animal sacrifices and sin offerings which all pointed to Jesus as Gods’ sacrifice for the sins of the world (John 1:29; John 1 36: Hebrews 10:10) the change of the Priesthood (Hebrews 7:1-25) and Christ new role in the new covenant as our great High Priest who is now ministering on our behalf in the heavenly Sanctuary of which the earthly was only a copy that the Lord pitched and not man (Hebrew 8:1-5). These are what is made obsolete and fulfilled and continued in Christ. The laws of God are no longer written on tables of stone but on the fleshly tables of the heart through the Spirit (see Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27 and 2 Corinthians 3:3.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Again Does the covenant at Sinai include all commands at Sinai except the Ten Commandments, meaning we must still keep them? No, it appears that even the Ten Commandments are connected with the old, now-obsolete covenant to Israel, the Old Testament. In fact, in the New Testament, the Ten Commandments are called "the ministry of death, written and engraved on stones" (2 Corinthians 3:7, NKJV, emphasis mine), which shows that the Ten Commandments are, in fact, what 2 Corinthians 3:7 is referencing, right? What other law was "written and engraved on stones"? The passage later calls these Ten Commandments "what is passing away" (2 Corinthians 3:11).

According to the scriptures here in 2 Corinthians 3 is not Gods 10 commandments that have become obsolete it is the ministration of condemnation and death through the ministration of the Spirit that brings life and peace through Gods’ forgiveness and faith in Christ. Lets look at the scriptures.

2 CORINTHIANS 3:3-18
[3], For as much as YOU ARE MANIFESTLY DECLARED TO BE THE LETTER OF CHRIST MINISTERED BY US, WRITTEN NOT WITH INK, BUT WITH THE SPIRIT OF THE LIVING GOD; NOT IN TABLES OF STONE, BUT IN FLESHY TABLES OF THE HEART.
[4], And such trust have we through Christ to God-ward:
[5], Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think any thing as of ourselves; but our sufficiency is of God;
[6], WHO ALSO HAS MADE US ABLE MINISTERS OF THE NEW TESTAMENT; NOT OF THE LETTER, BUT OF THE SPIRIT: FOR THE LETTER KILLS, BUT THE SPIRIT GIVES LIFE.
[7], BUT IF THE MINISTRATION OF DEATH, WRITTEN AND ENGRAVED IN STONES, WAS GLORIOUS, SO THAT THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL COULD NOT STEADFASTLY BEHOLD THE FACE OF MOSES FOR THE GLORY OF HIS COUNTENANCE; WHICH GLORY WAS TO BE DONE AWAY:
[8], HOW SHALL NOT THE MINISTRATION OF THE SPIRIT BE RATHER GLORIOUS?
[9], FOR IF THE MINISTRATION OF CONDEMNATION be glory, much more does the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory.
[10], For even that which was made glorious had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excels.
[11], FOR IF THAT WHICH IS DONE AWAY WAS GLORIOUS, MUCH MORE THAT WHICH REMAINS IS GLORIOUS.
[12], Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech:
[13], AND NOT AS MOSES, WHICH PUT A VEIL OVER HIS FACE, THAT THE CHILDREN OF ISRAEL COULD NOT STEADFASTLY LOOK TO THE END OF THAT WHICH IS ABOLISHED:
[14], BUT THEIR MINDS WERE BLINDED: FOR UNTIL THIS DAY REMAINS THE SAME VEIL NOT TAKEN AWAY IN THE READING OF THE OLD TESTAMENT; WHICH VEIL IS DONE AWAY IN CHRIST.
[15], But even to this day, when Moses is read, the veil is on their heart.
[16], NEVERTHELESS WHEN IT SHALL TURN TO THE LORD, THE VEIL SHALL BE TAKEN AWAY.
[17], Now THE LORD IS THAT SPIRIT: AND WHERE THE SPIRIT OF THE LORD IS, THERE IS LIBERTY.
[18], But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the LORD.

.....................

It is the ministration of condemnation and death by the letter that is done away by the ministration of the Spirit through God's mercy, grace and forgiveness through faith that works by love in fulfillment of Gods' new covenant promise (Hebrews 8:10-12; from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27) that is done away not God's 10 commandments. All God's 10 commandments do under the new covenant is to give us the knowledge of good (moral right doing) and evil (moral wrong doing); sin (moral wrong doing) and righteousness (moral right doing) *Romans 3:20: Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4; Psalms 119:172.

An interpretation that 2 Corinthians 3 is talking about abolishing Gods' 10 commandments has Paul in contradiction to Paul when he says in Romans 3:31 that faith does not abolish Gods' law it establishes God's law and again in Romans 13:8-10 where Paul says we love our neighbor as our self by being obedient to those laws in God's 10 commandments that show us our duty of love to our fellow man.

Indeed the ministration of the Spirit is greater the than the ministration of the letter because while the letter brings death and condemnation while the Spirit brings life and forgiveness through Christ and writes the law on the heart through faith that works by love which is Gods' new covenant promise in all those who have been born again to believe and follow God's Word and walk in newness of life *John 3:3-7; 1 John 3:4-9; Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27; Romans 6:1-23. It is not therefore God’s 10 commandments that have become obsolete it is the ministration of condemnation and death through the ministration of God’s forgiveness and His sacrifice for our sins.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Secondly, even the Ten Commandments itself say this: "And remember that you [i.e., the children of national, physical Israel) were a slave in the land of Egypt, and the LORD your God brought you out from there by a mighty hand and by an outstretched arm; therefore the LORD your God commanded you to keep the Sabbath day" (Deuteronomy 5:15, NKJV, emphasis mine). This section from the Ten Commandments clearly shows that the "you" of the Ten Commandments, the people addressed, are the children of physical, national Israel. The fact that they were brought out of Egypt is the reason, "therefore," that they should keep the Sabbath. National, physical Israel is the one that was brought out of Egypt.

Well of course the scriptures teach that God first gave the 10 commandments as well as the Mosaic book of the covenant to physical Israel who he led out of Egypt. There is no argument there. I am not sure why you would feel that is a problem. Are you trying to argue that it is ok now to lie, steal, murder and commit adultery and take Gods’ name in vain and make idols and bow down and worship them because God first gave His 10 commandments to those of His people that he led out of Egypt?

I would hope that is not what you are trying to argue here because according to Gods’ new covenant scriptures everyone of God’s 10 commandments are repeated as the standard for Christian living (scripture support here linked). Jesus and the Apostles all taught obedience to Gods’ law in the new covenant scriptures (here linked). As posted earlier, according to the new covenant scriptures, God 10 commandments have the same role they always had and that is to give us the knowledge of good and evil; sin and righteousness (Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4; Psalms 119:172). According to James if we knowingly break anyone of them we stand guilty before God of sin *James 2:10-11.

Thirdly, in Romans 7, Paul says that a woman can't remarry if her husband's still alive. However, if he's dead, she's released from the law of her husband, no longer being bound to his law (Romans 7:1-3). In the same way, we've become dead to "the law" in order to be married to Christ (Romans 7:4). This doesn't mean "the law" is sin even though we're no longer under it, however; after all, the law we've become dead to taught, "You shall not covet" (Romans 7:7). Therefore, the law we've become dead to is the law that said, "You shall not covet." Quite clearly, this is the Ten Commandments, since that's where the statement, "You shall not covet" comes from (Exodus 20:17; Deuteronomy 5:21). So Christians, members of spiritual Israel, have become dead to the Ten Commandments.

I am sorry but I respectfully disagree with your view of Romans 7 because of the context already provided in Romans 6. Romans 7 is not saying we are dead to God’ law like you are teaching here. According to the chapter context of Romans 7 the law being discussed in Romans 7:4-6 is not God’s 10 commandments but the example of “marriage” between the flesh and the Spirit (the old man of sin and the new man that has died with Christ (see the contexts of Romans 6:1-23) as shown in Romans 7:1-3. Being dead to the law in Romans 7:4 is not saying we disregard God's law (10 commandments) or any one of God's commandments for that matter as the purpose of Gods law in the new covenant is to give us the knowledge of what sin is *Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4 and to lead us to Christ that we might be forgiven through faith *Galatians 3:22-25.

That is why Paul says the law (10 commandments) as stated a little further after Paul explains the purpose of God’s law in Romans 7:7 (not marriage law) is to give us a knowledge of sin is holy, just and good in Romans 7:12. The context of Romans 7:4 is to the example of the law of marriage and being married to the new husband (Christ) in the Spirit *Romans 7:1-6. While we are married to the flesh (the old sinful man) we cannot be married to Christ in the Spirit. Romans 7:5-6 adds a little more clarity [5], For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit to death.[6], But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter. The wages of sin is death according to the scriptures but the gift of God is JESUS our new husband to those who have died to the flesh (see Romans 6) and been made free to walk in the Spirit *Romans 6:23; Romans 7:1-6; Romans 8:1-4; 13; Galatians 5:16. Have a prayerful read of Romans 6 dear friend. It will help your study as Romans 7 is just a different expression of the same subject matter. Showing that it is sin that we die to not God’s law that gives us the knowledge of what sin is *Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Thirdly Lastly, in Hebrews 9:1, we're told of things from "the first covenant" (NKJV). Among the list are "the tablets of the covenant" (Hebrews 9:4, NKJV). So again, the two tablets of the Ten Commandments are part of the old covenant, right? The old covenant had a different priesthood, for our High Priest is the Lord Jesus Christ! Because of this, the covenant had to change. "For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there is also a change of the law" (Hebrews 7:12, NKJV, emphasis mine). We are no longer under the old law, which included the Levitical priesthood as well as the Sabbath as a "sign" specifically for Israel, but are now under a new law.

Actually no. According to the scriptures as posted earlier the old covenant consisted of both God’s 10 commandments which in the new covenant have the same role they always have and that is to give us the knowledge of good and evil; sin and righteousness (Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4; Psalms 119:172). According to James if we knowingly break anyone of them, we stand guilty before God of sin *James 2:10-11. The old covenant also included the Mosaic book of the covenant written by Moses as directed by God as shown in Exodus 24:7. What I believe you’re mixing up here is the Mosaic “shadow laws” from the book of the covenant's (Exodus 24:7) laws for remission of sins which include the earthly Sanctuary, the Levitical Priesthood, the laws for animal sacrifices and sin offerings for atonement of sin with Gods’ eternal laws that give us the knowledge of what sin is when broken *Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4.

These “shadow laws” for remission of sins from the Mosaic book of the covenant (Exodus 24:7) pointed to Jesus as Gods’ sacrifice for the sins of the world *John 1:29; 36; Hebrews 10:10, and the ministration of Jesus in the new covenant as our great High Priest who ever lives to make intercession for us in the Heavenly Sanctuary that the Lord pitched and not man (see Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:13; Hebrews 9:1-27: Hebrews 10:1-22). As shown through the scriptures already Gods Israel is only a name by God given to all those who believe and follow what God’s Word says (Romans 9:6-8; Romans 3:28-29; Galatians 3:28-29) if we are not a part of God’s Israel who believe and follow what God’s Word says we have no part in Gods new covenant promise *Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27.

Does this mean we're free to murder, commit adultery, etc.? Certainly not! It turns out that most (but not all) of the things the Ten Commandments required are taught in the New Testament as well—except there's no command to keep the Sabbath. So saying that the Ten Commandments are obsolete doesn't lead me to justifying murder or adultery, for example, since such are also condemned in the New Testament (e.g., Revelation 21:8; Hebrews 13:4; etc).

As posted and shown earlier through the scriptures, everyone of God’s 10 commandments are repeated as the standard for Christian living (scripture support here linked). Jesus and the Apostles all taught obedience to Gods’ law in the new covenant scriptures (here linked). As posted earlier, according to the new covenant scriptures, God 10 commandments have the same role they always had and that is to give us the knowledge of good and evil; sin and righteousness (Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7; 1 John 3:4; Psalms 119:172). According to James if we knowingly break anyone of them we stand guilty before God of sin *James 2:10-11. “Therefore, it remains [left behind] for the people of God to keep the Sabbath.” – Hebrews 4:9

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Mark 2:27 revisited
Now, Mark 2:27 mentions the Sabbath, saying, "The Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath" (NKJV, emphasis mine). Similar to what I said in an earlier post, if someone asked me whether angels need to be circumcised and I replied, "Circumcision was made for man, not for angels," would that be a true statement? I assume you'd agree. However, would it be accurate for someone to later take my quote and say, "Kilk1 believes circumcision is for Gentiles! Proof?

According to the scriptures, as has been shown earlier, from the very words of Jesus the Sabbath was made for man (mandkind ἄνθρωπος; ánthrōpos G444 human beings) *Mark 2:27. The scriptures do not say anywhere that the Sabbath was made for Jews or physical Israel in Mark 2:27. If Jesus was stating that the Sabbath was made for the Jews he would have used the Greek word Ἰουδαῖος (Ioudaîos; G2453) or for Israel he would have said Ἰσραήλ (Israḗl | G2474). Fact is though he specifically used the Greek word for human beings or mankind (ἄνθρωπος; ánthrōpos G444). So this right from the start has you reading into the scripture of Mark 2:27 what the scriptures are not saying or teaching. The evidence of this is further provided in Genesis 1:26-31 and Genesis 2:1-3 where God created the Sabbath for mandkind ἄνθρωπος; ánthrōpos G444 human beings. As Jesus says on the “seventh day” of the creation week. According to the scriptures when God created the Sabbath on the “seventh day” of the creation week, there was no Abraham, no Isaac, no Jacob, no Moses, no Jew, no Israel, no law, no sin and no plan of salvation given. There was only Adam and Eve representing the first of all mankind made in the image of God created on the 6th day of the creation week (Genesis 1:26-31) that God made the Sabbath for on the “seventh day” of the creation week that he blessed and set aside as a holy day of rest for all mankind *Genesis 2:1-3.

He said, 'Circumcision was made for "man",' not just 'Jews,' so that settles what he believes!" This would obviously be taking me out of context if elsewhere, I've said that circumcision was specifically a covenant sign for Abraham and his descendants, right? In the same way, it's good to look at the "not" that Jesus gives to know the contrast. His point is simply that the Sabbath was made for man, not man for the Sabbath. The Sabbath can't legalistically rule man, since it's made for man's benefit. Jesus doesn't say what "man" refers to, but if the Pharisees would've thought He meant it was for "all mankind," that would've caused a completely new discussion since it seems the Jews never thought it was for all mankind, as discussed earlier. What's more significant, though? If we make "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) mean "all mankind," then we'd actually make Jesus contradict Exodus 31:17, Nehemiah 9:14, Ezekiel 20:12, and even the Ten Commandments in Deuteronomy 5:15, passages which specify the Sabbath as a covenant sign between God and the physical nation of Israel that was brought out of Egypt. The Sabbath couldn't be a covenant sign between God and Israel if it were already for everyone else anyway, right? Rather, "man" means the same thing it always means when used in the context of old covenant commands; it means "Jews." Remember the rule we established earlier: If the Scriptures teach that the Sabbath is specifically for physical Israel in connection with the obsolete old covenant, not something for everyone, then "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) in Mark 2:27 doesn't mean anything more than it means in John 7:22-23, Hebrews 5:1-3, or Hebrews 7:28—that is, "Jews."So Jesus is saying that the Sabbath was made for Jews, not Jews for the Sabbath, meaning the Pharisees can't be legalistic against the Jews that were following Jesus as they took food from the fields. After all, Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath (not to mention Lord of everything!). Perhaps we need to be careful not to be strictly binding the Sabbath now, all the more so under the new covenant.

As posted a little earlier, according to the scriptures, context and subject matter with prayerful help from God’s Spirit, determine word meanings for scripture interpretation. Firstly, a Jew is also a part of mankind [Greek, anthropos]. This is the context and application of John 7:22-23. As posted earlier, the context and subject matter here and application of man [Greek, anthropos] in John 7:22-23 is to circumcision (subject matter). Circumcision was not given to God’s people of the old covenant at creation but was given to Abraham of the sign of the covenant that God made with him and His seed that shall become a great nation (Genesis 17:9-14). There was no Abraham, no Jew, no Israel no Moses, no sin, and no plan of salvation given because there was no sin and no circumcision because there was no covenant given to those who believed and followed Gods’ Word at creation. Only Adam and Eve created on the 6th day of the creation week *Genesis 1:26-31 that God made the Sabbath for on the “seventh day” of the creation weem in Genesis 2:1-3.

According to the scriptures, as has been shown earlier, from the very words of Jesus the Sabbath was made for man (mandkind ἄνθρωπος; ánthrōpos G444 human beings) *Mark 2:27. The scriptures do not say anywhere that the Sabbath was made for Jews or physical Israel in Mark 2:27. If Jesus was stating that the Sabbath was made for the Jews he would have used the Greek word Ἰουδαῖος (Ioudaîos; G2453) or for Israel he would have said Ἰσραήλ (Israḗl | G2474). Fact is though he specifically used the Greek word for humal beings or mankind (ἄνθρωπος; ánthrōpos G444). So this right from the start has you reading into the scripture of Mark 2:27 what the scriptures are not saying or teaching. The evidence of this is further provided in Genesis 1:26-31 and Genesis 2:1-3 where God created the Sabbath for mandkind ἄνθρωπος; ánthrōpos G444 human beings. As Jesus says on the “seventh day” of the creation week. According to the scriptures when God created the Sabbath on the “seventh day” of the creation week, there was no Abraham, no Isaac, no Jacob, no Moses, no Jew, no Israel, no law, no sin and no plan of salvation given. There was only Adam and Eve representing the first of all mankind made in the image of God created on the 6th day of the creation week (Genesis 1:26-31) that God made the Sabbath for on the “seventh day” of the creation week that he blessed and set aside as a holy day of rest for all mankind *Genesis 2:1-3.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

The Sabbath as a shadow
As we've already seen, the Sabbath was specifically given to the physical nation of Israel as a covenant sign so they'd know that God "sanctified" them (i.e., set them apart).

As shown through the scriptures already, Gods’ Israel is simple a name given by God to all those who believe and follow Gods’ Word in both the old ands new covenants (See Romans 9:6-8; Romans 3:28-29; Galatians 3:28-29; (more scripture support here linked). Gods’ Israel in the old covenant were all those who believe and follow Gods’ Word born in the flesh of the seed of Abraham according to the promise made by God to Abraham. Gods’ Israel under the new covenant is not longer only those born of the flesh of the seed of Abraham but are now all those who have been born again of the Spirit to believe and follow what Gods’ Word says. If we are not a part of Gods Israel, we have no part in Gods’ new covenant promises according to Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27

Because we're now under a new covenant (Hebrews 8:6-13), the practices of the Old Covenant are a thing of the past. Paul explains that through the blood of Christ, the enmity between Jews and Gentiles would be abolished, making one "man" (Greek, ánthrōpos) from the Jewish man and Gentile man, which ended the division caused by the old covenant, "the law of commandments contained in ordinances" (Ephesians 4:14-16, NKJV). He makes a similar statement in Colossians 2:13-17 (NKJV, emphasis mine): And you, being dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He has made alive together with Him, having forgiven you all trespasses, having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us, which was contrary to us. And He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross. Having disarmed principalities and powers, He made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them in it.

According to the scriptures, the enmity between the Jews and the Gentiles is the separation between them by the commandments contained in “ordinances (Ephesians 2:15). God’s 10 commandments were never contained in ordinances. The Greek word used here is the same words used in Colossians 2:14 “Blotting out the handwriting contained in ordinances that were against us.” The Greek word used here for “ordinances” is δόγμα (dógma | G1378) which means a civil; ceremonial or ecclesiastical law that was against us. So the reference here is not to God’s 10 commandments but the laws in “ordinances” (civil; ceremonial or ecclesiastical law) that separated Jews from the Gentile believers in Ephesians 2:15.

The laws of separation were the laws for remission of sins. Genetile believers were not allowed to partake of the laws for remission of sins unless they became proselytes or converted to Judaism. Jesus broke down the middle wall of partition by His death putting and end to the old covenant laws for remission of sins (earthly Sanctuary, the Levitical Priesthood, animal sacrifices and sin offerings) that all point to Christ and were fulfilled in Him at his death nailing them to the cross *Colossians 2:14 hat he might create in himself of the two (Jew and Gentile believers) one new man, so making peace and might reconcile them both in one body unto God through the cross, having slain the enmity thereby (sin and its penalty of condemnation and death) *Ephesians 2:15-16.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

So let no one judge you in food or in drink, or regarding a festival or a new moon or sabbaths, which are a shadow of things to come, but the substance is of Christ.

This has been addressed with a detailed scripture response already showing why Gods' 4th commandment is not a shadow law of Colossians 2:16 so I will only touch on it briefly again here. As shown through the scriptures, already, the within scripture context of Colossians 2:16-17 is that the meat and drink offerings and the new moons and the sabbaths (plural) in the Feast days which are the “shadows of things to come” but the body is of Christ. That is because the annual Feasts days were all Mosiac “shadow laws” from the book of the covenant (Exodus 24:7) linked to the old covenant earthly Sanctuary’s laws for remission of sins and sin offerings, pointing to Jesus as the promised Messiah and His work on our behalf in the heavenly Sanctuary, as our great High Priest that the Lord pitched and not man (see Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:1-13; Hebrews 9:1-27 and Hebrews 10:1-22), they are all now fulfilled and continued in Christ. They were the “shadows” pointing to “the body” of Christ who has now arrived. Hosea is saying that God is putting an end to all the things mentioned in Colossians 2:16 that were pointing to Jesus. The sabbaths in the Feast days that are being brought to an end are those linked directly in the Feast days and the old covenant laws for remission of sins. Not God’s 4th commandments which is also outside of the annual Feast days that points backwards, not forwards to things to come. *Exodus 20:8-11. You’re mixing up the “ceremonial shadow sabbaths” in the Feast days with God’s eternal Sabbath *Exodus 31:16 that will be continued to be kept forever in the new earth (Isaiah 66:22-23) of Gods’ 10 commandments (Exodus 20:8-11) that give us the knowledge of what sin is when broken (Romans 3:20; Romans 7:7) under the new covenant (Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27).

While the terms "festival" (G1859, εορταις), "new moon" (G3561, νουμηνιαις), and "sabbaths" (G4521 σαββατοις) seem self-explanatory, I thought I'd do more research on the terms. Apparently, the Greek terms used for these appear in the Old Testament when using the Septuagint (LXX). Five verses where each of the three Greek words appear are 2 Chronicles 2:4, 2 Chronicles 31:3, Nehemiah 10:33, Ezekiel 45:17, and Hosea 2:11.

Yes I have posted on this these scriptures already both here and in other threads showing that Paul in Colossians 2:16 is quoting from these old testament scriptures found in 2 Chronicles 2:4, 2 Chronicles 31:3, Nehemiah 10:33, Ezekiel 45:17, and Hosea 2:11. As posted already the within scripture context of Colossians 2:16 is that the meat and drink offerings (laws for remission of sins) and the new moons and the sabbaths (plural) in the Feast days they they are all linked to are the “shadows of things to come” but the body us of Christ. That is, because the annual Feasts were all shadows linked directly to the laws for atonement and the remission of sins and sin offerings through animal sacrifices, pointing to Jesus as the promised Messiah and His work on our behalf in the new covenant as Jesus as our great High Priest who now ministers on our behalf in the heavenly Sanctuary that the Lord pitched and not man (see Hebrews 7:1-25; Hebrews 8:1-13; Hebrews 9:1-27 and Hebrews 10:1-22) they are now fulfilled and continued in Him to which they pointed to in the new covenant!

When I've looked at various commentaries, they seem to all be in agreement with each other that the terms are a catch-all way to reference all the holy days of Israel, including the weekly Sabbaths. The Old Testament passages discussing the holy days of Israel are Leviticus 23 and Numbers 28; Numbers 29. In the first three passages of the paragraph above (2 Chronicles 2:4, 2 Chronicles 31:3; Nehemiah 10:33), the order appears to be weekly, monthly, and annually, consistent with the order given in Leviticus 23 and Numbers 28-29. In the two remaining passages from the paragraph above (Ezekiel 45:17 and Hosea 2:11), the order is reversed, and with a different word for "feasts" (though with G1859 εορταις still appearing). With "New Moons" still being in the middle, there continues to be an apparent order. For reference, here are some commentaries on the passages:

• 2 Chronicles 2:4 Commentaries
• 2 Chronicles 31:3 Commentaries
• Nehemiah 10:33 Commentaries
• Ezekiel 45:17 Commentaries
• Hosea 2:11 Commentaries

So it seems that "Sabbaths" in the five passages above are about the weekly Sabbaths. And considering they use the same words in the Septuagint (LXX) that Paul uses in Colossians 2:16-17, it would seem that Paul has the same meaning in mind. In other words, people shouldn't judge (condemn) people for not observing the holy days of Israel, including the weekly Sabbath, as they were taken out of the way and nailed to the cross. The holy days, etc. are simply a shadow of things to come.

I am not really one for commentaries as the commentators or so called scholars rarely agree with each other but even the Sunday keeping commentaries do not agree with your teachings here that Colossians 2:16 is a reference to Gods’ 10 commandments or God’s 4th commandment of the 10 commandments or Gods 4th commandment of the 10 commandments.

You should take note of the scriptures in Colossians 2:16; 2 Chronicles 2:4; 2 Chronicles 31:3; Nehemiah 10:33; Ezekiel 45:17, and Hosea 2:11 is not to the Sabbath (singular) but application is to sabbaths (plural). It is not talking about the Sabbath of Gods’ 10 commandments being a “shadow” but the sabbaths (plural which is a noun that is genitive neuter plural application (N-GNP) connected to the appointed times (Feast days) and food and drink offerings and the old covenant laws for remission of sins through animal sacrifices under the earthly Sanctuary and the Levitical Priesthood. Out of respect for our conversation however I did follow the linked commentaries you provided. The commentaries are not stating that 2 Chronicles 2:4; 2 Chronicles 31:3; Nehemiah 10:33; Ezekiel 45:17, and Hosea 2:11 is referring to the weekly Sabbath of Gods' 4th commandment although of course I agree it would be included in the Feast days and linked to the meat and drink offerings would be included. The majority of commentaries you provided, I noticed are talking about what I have been sharing with you from the scriptures and that is that the sabbaths in the Feast days are linked directly to the laws of remission of sins through the meat and the drink offerings. These are the shadows that are now fulfilled in Christ, not Gods 10 commandments or God’s 4th commandment which will be continued to be kept as an everlasting covenant in the new earth *Exodus 31:16; Isaiah 66:22-23.

Even Sunday keeping scholars agree with what I have been sharing with you from Colossians 2:16 and its application to the sabbaths in the feast days which is not a reference to Gods' 4th commandment as shown below.

Albert Barnes Notes on the Bible

“... Or of the Sabbath days - Greek, “of the Sabbaths.” The word Sabbath in the Old Testament is applied not only to the seventh day, but to all the days of holy rest that were observed by the Hebrews, and particularly to the beginning and close of their great festivals. There is, doubtless, reference to those days in this place, since the word is used in the plural number, and the apostle does not refer particularly to the Sabbath properly so called. There is no evidence from this passage that he would teach that there was no obligation to observe any holy time, for there is not the slightest reason to believe that he meant to teach that one of the ten commandments had ceased to be binding on mankind. If he had used the word in the singular number - “the Sabbath,” it would then, of course, have been clear that he meant to teach that that commandment had ceased to be binding, and that a Sabbath was no longer to be observed. But the use of the term in the plural number, and the connection, show that he had his eye on the great number of days which were observed by the Hebrews as festivals, as a part of their ceremonial and typical law, and not to the moral law, or the Ten Commandments. No part of the moral law - no one of the ten commandments could be spoken of as “a shadow of good things to come.” These commandments are, from the nature of moral law, of perpetual and universal obligation. ...” - Albert Barnes, Colossians 2:16 Commentary. E-Sword App.

Adam Clarke, states on the same passage:

There is no intimation here that the Sabbath was done away, or that its moral use was superseded, by the introduction of Christianity. I have shown elsewhere that, Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy, is a command of perpetual obligation, and can never be superseded but by the final termination of time. ...” - Adam Clarke, Colossians 2:16 Commentary. E-Sword App.

Jamieson, Fausset and Brown Commentary states:

“... the sabbath — Omit “THE,” which is not in the Greek (compare Note, see on Gal_4:10). “SABBATHS” (not “the sabbaths”) of the day of atonement and feast of tabernacles have come to an end with the Jewish services to which they belonged (Lev_23:32, Lev_23:37-39). The weekly sabbath rests on a more permanent foundation, having been instituted in Paradise to commemorate the completion of creation in six days. Lev_23:38 expressly distinguished “the sabbath of the Lord” from the other sabbaths. A positive precept is right because it is commanded, and ceases to be obligatory when abrogated; a moral precept is commanded eternally, because it is eternally right. If we could keep a perpetual sabbath, as we shall hereafter, the positive precept of the sabbath, one in each week, would not be needed. Heb_4:9, “rests,” Greek, “keeping of sabbath” (Isa_66:23). But we cannot, since even Adam, in innocence, needed one amidst his earthly employments; therefore the sabbath is still needed and is therefore still linked with the other nine commandments, as obligatory in the spirit, though the letter of the law has been superseded by that higher spirit of love which is the essence of law and Gospel alike (Rom_13:8-10). ...” - Jamieson, Fausset and Brown, Colossians 2:16 Commentary. E-Sword App.

more to come....

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Finally Rather, it's a rest that the people of old never entered due to disobedience (Hebrews 4:1-5). In fact, it isn't even a rest that Joshua entered but is available "today" (Hebrews 4:6-9). This proves that entering the Sabbath rest which remains doesn't refer to keeping the weekly Sabbath; otherwise, as a God-fearing Jew, Joshua would have entered it every time he observed the Sabbath. Rather, the Sabbath is heavenly rest brought through Christ, something we must be "diligent" to enter (Hebrews 4:9-11). So there is a Sabbath rest that remains for us today, but it isn't the weekly Sabbath.

According to the scriptures as shown in the previous section Hebrews 3 and Hebrews 4 is a warning that if we harden our hearts to hearing and believing and following God’s Word (the gospel) we will not enter into Gods’ rest which is defined in the scripture context of Hebrews 4:3-4 as “the seventh day” Sabbath created at the foundation of the world which refers back to Genesis 2:1-3 when the Sabbath was created for all mankind. What the scriptures means is that it is possible to physically keep God’s 4th commandment but not enter into God’s rest (Sabbath keeping) because of unbelief and sin. We can look at the detail here in the next few posts if you like?

More to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Finally Rather, it's a rest that the people of old never entered due to disobedience (Hebrews 4:1-5). In fact, it isn't even a rest that Joshua entered but is available "today" (Hebrews 4:6-9). This proves that entering the Sabbath rest which remains doesn't refer to keeping the weekly Sabbath; otherwise, as a God-fearing Jew, Joshua would have entered it every time he observed the Sabbath. Rather, the Sabbath is heavenly rest brought through Christ, something we must be "diligent" to enter (Hebrews 4:9-11). So there is a Sabbath rest that remains for us today, but it isn't the weekly Sabbath.

According to the scriptures as shown in the previous section Hebrews 3 and Hebrews 4 is a warning that if we harden our hearts to hearing and believing and following God’s Word (the gospel) we will not enter into Gods’ rest which is defined in the scripture context of Hebrews 4:3-4 as “the seventh day” Sabbath created at the foundation of the world which refers back to Genesis 2:1-3 when the Sabbath was created for all mankind. What the scriptures means is that it is possible to physically keep God’s 4th commandment but not enter into God’s rest (Sabbath keeping) because of unbelief and sin. Let's look at the scripture detail in the next few posts.

more to come...

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Will come back shortly to continue. I hope the shorter responses are earlier to follow all though there is more of them.. I will continue with a detailed response to Hebrews 3 and Hebrews 4 shortly.

Take Care.