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Are you serious? What about hundreds of prophecies?think it relates because that’s how the Bible describes Him. There’s no biblical support for God’s “seeing” into the future—
I still think you’re making a mistake in thinking there is something in the future to “see”. But I deny that “everything” is unknowable in the future if God can’t see it. For instance, God knows that Satan will be judged and thrown into the lake of fire. God knows that lesser demons will be tormented at some time in the future, assuming Legion was not blowing smoke. God even knows what Satan will attempt to do when God removes restraint on him. Does He know these things because He can “see” them in the future? Or does He know them because He understands Satan and his evil desires, as well as His own plans to deal with Satan and other demons?Im not sure where you are getting that. I just said he couldn't see what isn't decided if he's subject to time. That by definition is everything in the future.
”How” is an excellent question. Let’s start with your answer, that God can “see” into the future. And seeing into the future, God predicts that Nineveh will be destroyed in exactly 40 days. Nineveh’s king tells all his people to repent with fasting and humility. God already knows that Nineveh will be destroyed…Can He stop the destruction without damaging His credibility, not to mention the credibility of the glasses He’s using to “see” into the future?Are you serious? What about hundreds of prophecies?
When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come.
How?
Nothing that is created is necessary or else it would violate the Christian teaching that God freely made all things, so no it is not necessary. Was it going to come to pass? Most certainly, for God knew what really would occur and be chosen by them, and what He knows is.
I don't see why such creation excludes free will, neither do I see prophecy as excluding free will. How do you define it? Also if God doesn't know the future and all things in His own world I can not fathom how He'd be omniscient.
I dunno about that teaching.
God the Father had an end-state in view before anything was created through God the Son. Everything that has been done, everything that will be done, is necessary to reach that end-state.
The only discussion, then, is whether God's view of His desired end-state was necessary to Him. But once He determined that end-state, everything that followed toward that end-state has been, is, and will be necessary to reach that end-state.
God does nothing trivial.
I think you all are missing the point of the poster (or what should be the point) and slipping into paradoxical answers. If God knew Adam and Eve were going to sin before he created them, then his act of creation excludes the free will of the recipient, or at best it's a phony choice, because you were already given the disposition to sin upon your creation. We would all be part of an elaborate algorithm that is preset for every living thing.
I agree with this, but the question is of the end-state: was it necessary that it be as it is, and why? If God is free why could it not have been different? I think it could be different and it is God who sets what it is. Once it is set (and I think it is the Incarnation personally, which is the greatest of all things which has ever been done, the height of all things ever wrought) He will set what is necessary to achieve it, and so it will occur, but I am saying that God is not bound to have made anything that was made as it was made.
Because knowledge isn't causation. If he caused thier rebellion then it would be pre programmed but that's not in scripture.
That's the problem with these absolute ideologies, because their rigidity demands one or the other, when both is a completely reasonable position. It's entirely likely based on different elements of the Bible that God has been causative in some situations and open in others.
Not intending to complicate the discussion, but if anyone but Jesus performed what he did in the gospels, would not most humans of most ages consider it a kind of sorcery? Jesus probably would have been hung or burned alive in the Salem witch trials.
This assumes time exists before creation. Which is highly unlikely.
Is not time in our existence that we can comprehend linked to the movements of the planets etc. as was spoken about the usefulness of the lesser heavens? *seasons, years, new moons etc. Our concept of time didn't even exist in Jesus' time. We have no idea if time exists in God's Heaven or if there is anything there that could be linked to time like here
The verse just says he numbers and names stars. Not sure how that applies.He determines the number of the stars; he gives to all of them their names. Great is our Lord, and abundant in power; his understanding is beyond measure. -- Psalm 147
Various theories of quantum mechanics (Heisenberg, Schrödinger, and others) suggest that no event actually happens, even at the subatomic level, without a rational observer judging that it happened.
The remaining possibility in all that is that it is possible that God could see both or multiple futures, depending on the choices of the recipients of the warning.
Nor would it be the same in God's personal universe as His is not and has never been the same as ours in nature regarding seasons or subatomic particlesThat means that time as we can possibly conceive it did not exist prior to creation.