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Savior of the World, or Eternal Failure?

ClementofA

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I have already read your treatises on kolasis.

Any educated person can read. It's another entirely to refute it. Especially since it comes from expert sources like lexicons.

Word study on kolasis, punish
by Matt Slick

Matt Slick ; Are you a Calvinist too?

This is the guy that's so afraid of universalism that he banned all discussion of the topic on his site, CARM, many years ago. Though he was happy to welcome all Satanists to discuss Satanism.

I challenged him to a debate but he didn't accept.

Show me where he refuted anything i've said.
 
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ClementofA

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Another version of "I'm right and you're wrong! Am too! Nuh huh!"

Did you miss my post to you (one of many yet unanswered):


There have been no, zero, none refutations of my list of verses.

It's your conclusions from verses that have been refuted.

How would you know when you claim you don't even read all my replies. Many of them you've never responded to.

You claim that the verses I posted do not define.

I claim that you've provided no proof. And shown you why your alleged proofs are flawed & fail to prove what you think, namely that they define aion/ios & olam as "eternal". They don't. You've never even provided a single verse "proving" that your claim is 100% true.

An adjective is a word that describes a noun. There are two kinds: attributive and predicative.
An adjective is used attributively when it stands next to a noun and describes it.
English 101. English Grammar 101: All You Need to Know

Provide some English language examples that prove a word is defined as another word in the same sentence. Then, if you can, find a verse in Scripture that does exactly the same. That will put your theory re defining aion/ios & olam to the touchstone or test.



Why does it concern you and other UR-ites that other Christians do not believe in UR? UR-ites are at this forum constantly posting their views, why don't they go off and talk to each other?

They already talk to each other here. But you didn't answer my question that i asked first: Why do you care if people change their views from endless tortures to UR or annihilation? Or is it that you can't answer because it would violate forum rules, e.g. you think URists are damned to ECT? That would explain your silence. It seems the forum accepts the view that those who believe in Christ can also believe in annihilation or UR.

.....Greek is now, and has always been, the language of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church. Who, better than the native Greek speaking scholars who translated the Eastern Orthodox Bible [EOB], knows the correct meaning of Greek words, e.g. “Gehenna,””aionios” and “kolasis?”
…..In the EOB, pg. 180 there is this footnote.

Why? Are they your Popes of all Greek scholars? If so, what makes you think they are any better than the rest? Can you name them, even one? Are they superior to Danker of BDAG? I've already shown a number of flaws with that work. Of what theological bias are the scholars behind the EOB Bible? Eternal torments? Of what theologial bias is the Eastern Greek Orthodox church? Are their scholars superior to the Early Church father universalists who were much closer to the time of Christ & the apostles? Who did not accept the Dark Ages - Torturing Inquisitionists view of "eternal" punishment when people had to submit to authorities like "Rome" or else & most were illiterate & without Bibles to read, even if they could obtain one that wasn't mistranslated.




.In the EOB, pg. 180 there is this footnote.
Hades is the realm of the dead. The upper part of hades was considered to be luminous and it was called “paradise” or "Abraham's bosom.” Hades is not to be confused with hell (Gehenna) which is the final place of state or place of the damned (“the lake of’ fire”).


What does that quote re Hades have to do with the subject of this post: aion/ios? And do you think the EOB is correct in your quote from it above?

In the EOB Paul uses “αιονιον/aionon,” in 1 Tim 1:17 synonymous with “αιδιος/aidios” in Rom 1:20, see below.

According to this source the word is αἰῶνας/aionas, not αιονιον/aionon
as you say:

1 Timothy 1:17 Greek Text Analysis


In the EOB Paul uses “αιονιον/aionon,” in 1 Tim 1:17 synonymous with “αιδιος/aidios” in Rom 1:20, see below.

So? A number of other Bibles (e.g. @ the url below) translated it more honestly & accurately as "of the ages" instead of "eternal". The word aion is in the plural form there. So if you like the translation "eternal" then you should make it plural as in "eternals" or "eternities". Then it would speak of the "King of the eternals" or "King of the eternities" ;

1 Timothy 1:17 Now to the King eternal, immortal, and invisible, the only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen.


= = = = = = =
Romans 1:20 For since the creation of the world, his invisible things are clearly seen. They perceived through created things, even his everlasting [τε αιδιος/te aidios] power and divinity.

= = = = = = = =
1 Timothy 1:17 Now, to the eternal [των αιωνων/tōn aiōnōn] King. immortal. invisible, to God who alone is wise, be honor and glory unto ages of ages. Amen.
In 1 Tim 1:17 Paul not only uses "aionon" synonymous with "aidios," in Rom 1:20, but also defines it by pairing it with "immortal" in the same verse.

"The king of the underworld is immortal, cute, a killer, etc". To use your type of faulty reasoning/logic, since "immortal" is paired with "cute", cute must logically be defined as eternal. Wrong. And the king must be eternally cute. Wrong. And because immortal is paired with killer, the king must be eternally killing for all eternity. Wrong. And killer must be defined as eternal. Wrong.

In a post you committed the same error, saying: "Here Origen defines "aionios" as "eternal" by pairing it with "immortality." ". Same idea as my example above with the king of the underworld. Faulty logic. Faulty reasoning. Hence an unproven, unwarranted assumption.


Examples of aionios as a finite duration in Koine Greek:

Two Questions
Does aionios always mean eternal in ancient Koine Greek? (paradise, Gospel, hell) - Christianity - - City-Data Forum

If Jesus wished to express endless punishment, then He would have used expressions such as "endless", "no end" & "never be saved" as per:

How Scripture expresses endless duration (not aion/ios) (paradise, hell, punishment) - Christianity - - City-Data Forum

Jesus didn't use the best words & expressions to describe endlessness in regards to punishment, because He didn't believe in endless punishment.

ENDLESSNESS not applied to eschatological PUNISHMENT in Scripture:

could an 'eternal punishment' simply mean that once instituted it will not change?

12 points re forever and ever (literally to/into "the ages of the ages") being finite:

For the Lord will NOT cast off FOR EVER:




 
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ClementofA

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Well I know what they cannot repent of- You still need to show a clear verse that says that in the afterlife- people can have the opportunity to repent.

I fully agree that with God all things are possible (excedpt for HIm to defy His own character). But that is not a blanket ticket to say that God will do all things. If one wishes to be considered a serious student of Scripture (Gods Word given to us for doctrine) we must look at all the pertinent passages concerning a particular topic and then see , that while nothing is impossible with gods, will He do the impossible in a particular instance!

It doesn't seem like you even read my post, let alone replied to it.

And what's this about "nothing is impossible with gods"?

Who are these "gods"? How many do you believe in?
 
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Der Alte

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I think the debate on the term "aionios" is exhausted, wouldn't you agree?
If we let scripture interpret scripture, you would have to be blind to not see that "aionios" does not literally mean FOREVER. Many sources and scholars have decided that aion more correctly translates to "ages" based on its usage in the Bible, and has no real qualifying ability to determine how long. Aionios quite literally and simply means "pertaining to an age".
In Homer it typically referred to one's life or lifespan. Today we use the word as a major division of geological time, subdivided into "eons" for example the Precambrian super-eon or Proterozoic eon.
Some would even argue that "aionios zoe/eternal life" is not about the quantity of life but rather the quality. Jesus Christ Himself gave us the definition of "aionios zoe/eternal life" in John 17:3 "Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent." He makes no mention of immortality in this definition but rather highlights a relationship with God. I personally believe that having a relationship with God has the power to sustain you unto all ages, but I don't think that is Jesus' main point in John 17.
Here we see some examples of aion/aionios/aionon/aioni used in the context of it not meaning forever.
Romans 16:25: “God…is able to strengthen you according to my gospel and the proclamation of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery that was kept secret for long ages [Greek αιωνιοις] and has now been manifested”.
1 Corinthians 2:7: "We speak God's wisdom in a mystery, the hidden wisdom which God predestined before the ages [αἰώνων (aiōnōn)] to our glory;”
Ephesians 3:9: “to bring to light what is the administration of the mystery which for ages past [αἰώνων (aiōnōn)] has been hidden in God who created all things.”
Colossians 1:26: “the mystery which has been hidden from past ages [αἰώνων (aiōnōn)] and generations, but has now been manifested to His saints."
Galatians 1:4: “…who gave Himself for our sins so that He might rescue us from this present evil age [αἰῶνος (aiōnos)], according to the will of our God and Father.”

Ephesians 1:21: “…in accordance with the working of the strength of His might which He brought about in Christ, when He raised Him from the dead and seated Him at His right hand in the heavenly places, far above all rule and authority and power and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this age [αἰῶνι (aiōni)] but also in the one to come.
Ephesians 2:7: "When we were dead in our transgressions, God made us alive together with Christ, and raised us up with Him, and seated us with Him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, so that in the ages to come [αἰῶσιν (aiōsin)] He might show the surpassing riches of His grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus.”
Matthew 28:20: "I am with you always, even to the end of the age [αἰῶνος (aiōnos)].”
Titus 1:2: “…in the hope of eternal [αἰωνίου (aiōniou)] life, which God, who cannot lie, promised long ages [αἰωνίων (aiōniōn)] ago."
Vague references to "Homer,""many sources and scholars" and "some" which proves absolutely nothing.
Let us use illogical UR logic on another word. The Greek word "kosmos" sometimes translated "world" cannot mean "world" because many times it refers to things which cannot literally be the "whole world/all the world."

[1]Matthew 16:26
(26) What good will it be for someone to gain the whole world, yet forfeit their soul? Or what can anyone give in exchange for their soul? [Mark 8:36, Luke 9:25]
Can a person literally inherit the "whole world?"
[2]1 John 5:19
(19) We know that we are children of God, and that the whole world is under the control of the evil one.
Was "the whole world" literally under the control of the evil one?
[3]Revelation 12:9
(9) The great dragon was hurled down—that ancient serpent called the devil, or Satan, who leads the whole world astray. He was hurled to the earth, and his angels with him.
Did Satan literally lead "the whole world" astray?
[4]Revelation 13:3
(3) One of the heads of the beast seemed to have had a fatal wound, but the fatal wound had been healed. The whole world was filled with wonder and followed the beast.
Did "the whole world" literally follow the beast?
[5]Genesis 41:57 And all the world came to Egypt to buy grain from Joseph, because the famine was severe everywhere.
Did "all the world" literally buy grain from Egypt?
[6]Acts 17:6 But when they did not find them, they dragged Jason and some other believers before the city officials, shouting: "These men who have caused trouble all over the world have now come here,
Did the disciples literally cause trouble "all over the world?"
[7]Acts 19:35 The city clerk quieted the crowd and said: "Fellow Ephesians, doesn't all the world know that the city of Ephesus is the guardian of the temple of the great Artemis and of her image, which fell from heaven?
Did "all the world" literally know that Ephesus was the guardian of the pagan deity Artemis?
[8]Acts 24:5 "We have found this man to be a troublemaker, stirring up riots among the Jews all over the world. He is a ringleader of the Nazarene sect.
Was Paul literally stirring up riots "all over the world?"
[9]Luke 2:1 And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world should be taxed.
Did Caesar literally tax "all the world?"
[10]Acts 19:27 So that not only this our craft is in danger to be set at nought; but also that the temple of the great goddess Diana should be despised, and her magnificence should be destroyed, whom all Asia and the world worshippeth
Did "all the world" literally worship the goddess Diana?
[11]Romans 1:8 First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world.
Was the faith of the Romans literally spoken of throughout "the whole world?"
[12]John 12:19 The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him.
Did the whole world literally go after Jesus?
[13]Acts of the apostles 17:6 And when they found them not, they drew Jason and certain brethren unto the rulers of the city, crying, These that have turned the world upside down are come hither also;
Did the Paul’s companions literally turn “the world upside down?”
[14]1 Corinthians 10:11 Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.
Did the “ends of the world” literally come upon the Israelite who disobeyed God at Sinai?
[15]James 3:6 And the tongue is a fire, a world of iniquity: so is the tongue among our members, that it defileth the whole body, and setteth on fire the course of nature; and it is set on fire of hell.
Is the tongue literally a world?



 
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ClementofA

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No matter how many times this nonsense is posted it is easily refuted.
κολασιν/kolasin the word correctly translated “punishment” in Matt 25:46 occurs one other time in the NT in 1 Jn 4:18.

1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love; but perfect love casteth out fear: because fear hath torment. [κολασιν/kolasin] He that feareth is not made perfect in love.
There is no correction, those who have “kolasin” are not made perfect.
The language of the Greek Eastern Orthodox church has always been Greek. Who better to know the correct translation of e.g. .κολασιν/kolasin” and αιωνιον/aionion” than the native Greek speaking translators of the EOB



That was already answered (see below) without any reply from you (and has never been refuted) as follows:

Mind if I offer a little assistance?
The Greek word "kolasis" occurs twice in the NT. Some heterodox religious groups argue that "kolasis" means correction.
1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love; but perfect love casteth out fear: because fear hath torment.[κολασιν/kolasin] He that feareth is not made perfect in love
Although the word "kolasin" occurs in this verse there is no correction. The one who has "kolasin" is not corrected, not made perfect.

Der Alter said: "The one who has "kolasin" is not corrected, not made perfect."

That's not what the verse says. Instead it says:

"He that feareth is not made perfect in love"

That doesn't deny that he is being corrected.

Just because someone is not "perfect" does not mean they are not being corrected.

1 John 4:18 Fear is not in love, but perfect love is casting out fear, for fear has chastening. Now he who is fearing is not perfected in love. (CLV)

Also never refuted:

KOLASIS:
Are You of Israel?
 
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ClementofA

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Let us use illogical UR logic on another word. The Greek word "kosmos" sometimes translated "world" cannot mean "world" because many times it refers to things which cannot literally be the "whole world/all the world."
[1]Matthew 16:26
(26) What good will it be for someone to gain the whole world, yet forfeit their soul? Or what can anyone give in exchange for their soul? [Mark 8:36, Luke 9:25]

Mat 16:26 What good will it be for someone to gain the whole world, yet forfeit their soul? Or what can anyone give in exchange for their soul?[Mar 8:36, Luk 9:25]


Forfeit/lose it for how long? It doesn't say forever. Can one who loses their soul find it again later? Did king Nebuchadnezzar lose his soul for 7 years when he ate grass like an animal...UNTIL...God restored him & he worshipped Love Omnipotent:

Dan.4:33 The same hour was the thing fulfilled upon Nebuchadnezzar: and he was driven from men, and did eat grass as oxen, and his body was wet with the dew of heaven, till his hairs were grown like eagles' feathers, and his nails like birds' claws.
34a But at the end of that period, I, Nebuchadnezzar, raised my eyes toward heaven and my reason returned to me, and I blessed the Most High and praised and honored Him...
35 All the inhabitants of the earth are accounted as nothing, But He does according to His will in the host of heaven And among the inhabitants of earth; And no one can ward off His hand Or say to Him, 'What have You done?'
36 At that time my reason returned to me. And my majesty and splendor were restored to me for the glory of my kingdom, and my counselors and my nobles began seeking me out; so I was reestablished in my sovereignty, and surpassing greatness was added to me.
37 Now I, Nebuchadnezzar, praise, exalt and honor the King of heaven, for all His works are true and His ways just, and He is able to humble those who walk in pride.

Here again a punishment is...UNTIL...a certain point:

Matt 5:25-26 Come to terms quickly with your adversary before it is too late and you are dragged into court, handed over to an officer, and thrown in jail.
I assure you that you won't be free again until you have paid the last penny.

Which is spoken of in the context of references to Gehenna, both before & after this passage. Likewise here is yet another passage re punishment...UNTIL...a certain time:

Mt.18:34 And his lord was wroth, and delivered him to the tormentors, till he should pay all that was due unto him. 35 That is how My Heavenly Father will treat each of you, unless you forgive your brother from your heart.

For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul? (Mt.16:26, KJV)

A parallel passage states:

What good is it for someone to gain the whole world, and yet lose or forfeit their very self? Lk.9:25

The word for "lose" is apollumi. The same Greek word used of the lost sheep, coin, & prodigal son who were "lost" & later found (Luke 15).

XYZ said:
And He was saying to them all, “If anyone wishes to come after Me, he must deny himself, and take up his cross daily and follow Me. “For whoever wishes to save his life will lose it, but whoever loses his life for My sake, he is the one who will save it. (Luke 9:23-24, 1995 NASB)


That passage doesn't address the final destiny of those who "lose" their life or soul (Greek psuché: Strong's Greek: 5590. ψυχή (psuché) -- breath, the soul)

The word for "lose" is the Greek word apollumi. The same Greek word used of the lost sheep, coin, & prodigal son who were "lost" & later found (Luke 15).

The king in Daniel 4 lost his mind (or soul) for 7 years before God restored it.

Fear not, said the angel who announced it, for, behold, I bring you good tidings of great joy, which shall be to all people. Luke 2:10.

Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace, good will toward men. Luke 2:14.

Luke 3:5 Every valley shall be filled,
and every mountain and hill shall be made low,
and the crooked shall be made straight,
and the rough ways made smooth;
Luke 3:6 and all flesh shall see the salvation of God.’”

Luke 4:18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,

But love your enemies, do good to them, and lend to them without expecting to get anything back. Then your reward will be great, and you will be sons of the Most High, because he is kind to the ungrateful and wicked. Luke 6:35

Luke 15:3 And he spake this parable unto them, saying, 4What man of you, having an hundred sheep, if he lose one of them, doth not leave the ninety and nine in the wilderness, and go after
that which is lost, until he find it?
Luke 15:8 Either what woman having ten pieces of silver, if she lose one piece, doth not light a candle, and sweep the house, and seek diligently till she find it?

Lk17:4 Even if he sins against you seven times in a day, and seven times returns to say, ‘I repent,’ you must forgive him.”
 
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agapelove

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Vague references to "Homer,""many sources and scholars" and "some" which proves absolutely nothing.
A quick Google search and you will find everything you are looking for. I am not going to do all your homework for you.
Let us use illogical UR logic on another word. The Greek word "kosmos" sometimes translated "world" cannot mean "world" because many times it refers to things which cannot literally be the "whole world/all the world."[/SIZE]
[1]Matthew 16:26
(26) What good will it be for someone to gain the whole world, yet forfeit their soul? Or what can anyone give in exchange for their soul? [Mark 8:36, Luke 9:25]
Can a person literally inherit the "whole world?"
[2]1 John 5:19
(19) We know that we are children of God, and that the whole world is under the control of the evil one.
Was "the whole world" literally under the control of the evil one?
[3]Revelation 12:9
(9) The great dragon was hurled down—that ancient serpent called the devil, or Satan, who leads the whole world astray. He was hurled to the earth, and his angels with him.
Did Satan literally lead "the whole world" astray?
[4]Revelation 13:3
(3) One of the heads of the beast seemed to have had a fatal wound, but the fatal wound had been healed. The whole world was filled with wonder and followed the beast.
Did "the whole world" literally follow the beast?
[5]Genesis 41:57 And all the world came to Egypt to buy grain from Joseph, because the famine was severe everywhere.
Did "all the world" literally buy grain from Egypt?
[6]Acts 17:6 But when they did not find them, they dragged Jason and some other believers before the city officials, shouting: "These men who have caused trouble all over the world have now come here,
Did the disciples literally cause trouble "all over the world?"
[7]Acts 19:35 The city clerk quieted the crowd and said: "Fellow Ephesians, doesn't all the world know that the city of Ephesus is the guardian of the temple of the great Artemis and of her image, which fell from heaven?
Did "all the world" literally know that Ephesus was the guardian of the pagan deity Artemis?
[8]Acts 24:5 "We have found this man to be a troublemaker, stirring up riots among the Jews all over the world. He is a ringleader of the Nazarene sect.
Was Paul literally stirring up riots "all over the world?"
[9]Luke 2:1 And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world should be taxed.
Did Caesar literally tax "all the world?"
[10]Acts 19:27 So that not only this our craft is in danger to be set at nought; but also that the temple of the great goddess Diana should be despised, and her magnificence should be destroyed, whom all Asia and the world worshippeth
Did "all the world" literally worship the goddess Diana?
[11]Romans 1:8 First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world.
Was the faith of the Romans literally spoken of throughout "the whole world?"
[12]John 12:19 The Pharisees therefore said among themselves, Perceive ye how ye prevail nothing? behold, the world is gone after him.
Did the whole world literally go after Jesus?
[13]Acts of the apostles 17:6 And when they found them not, they drew Jason and certain brethren unto the rulers of the city, crying, These that have turned the world upside down are come hither also;
Did the Paul’s companions literally turn “the world upside down?”
[14]1 Corinthians 10:11 Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come.
Did the “ends of the world” literally come upon the Israelite who disobeyed God at Sinai?
[15]James 3:6 And the tongue is a fire, a world of iniquity: so is the tongue among our members, that it defileth the whole body, and setteth on fire the course of nature; and it is set on fire of hell.
Is the tongue literally a world?

1. Please learn what an analogy is.
2. Yes, it was. John 14:30, 1 John 5:19. John 12:31.
3. Yes, he did. Revelation 12:9.
4. Yes, it did. Ephesians 2:2
5. Please learn what a hyperbole is.
6. I would say the work of the disciples caused ripples around the world, wouldn't you?
7. Possibly. Could also be a hyperbole.
8. Read his letters to the early churches and let me know what you think.
9. I'm sure he wanted to.
10. Possibly. Could also be a hyperbole.
11. It is now.
12. It seemed like it but nonetheless it is a hyperbole.
13. I think you and I can both recognize a figure of speech when we see one.
14. The end of their world, yes.
15. This is a metaphor.

I have really tried to be patient and have done you the courtesy of responding to every verse. Can you do the same for the verses that I provided now, please. Please tell me what you think "aeon/aeonios/aeonion" means in the context of how they are used for the scriptures from my OP.
 
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Saint Steven

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Yes, as that says, Jesus is the savior. I don’t think it means all will have eternal life, but all have the possibility to be saved.
Do you have reading comprehension issues?

Did God send Jesus to be the Potential Savior of the World? Or the Savior of the World?

1 John 4:14
And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world.
 
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Der Alte

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Do you have reading comprehension issues?
Did God send Jesus to be the Potential Savior of the World? Or the Savior of the World?

1 John 4:14
And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world.
1 John 3:15
15 Anyone who hates a brother or sister is a murderer, and you know that no murderer has eternal life residing in him.
I guess when John vs. 3:15 he wrote John did not know he was going to write vs. 4:14.
1 John 4:14
14 And we have seen and testify that the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world.
1 John 4:15
15 If anyone acknowledges that Jesus is the Son of God, God lives in them and they in God.
1 John 4:18
18 There is no fear in love. But perfect love drives out fear, because fear has to do with punishment.[kolasis] The one who fears is not made perfect in love.
No correction here. The one who has "kolasis" is not corrected, is not made perfect.
1 John 5:11-13
11 And this is the testimony: God has given us eternal life, and this life is in his Son.
12 Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have the Son of God does not have life.
I guess when John wrote this verse he forgot what he said in vs. 4:14 which supposedly means God will save all mankind, righteous and unrighteous alike, even after death.
13 I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God so that you may know that you have eternal life.
The converse of this is that those "who do not believe in the name of the Son of God so that you may know that you do not have eternal life."
 
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Saint Steven

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God's precious people, saturated and literally "oozing" with the false doctrines of the harlot Church systems have long viewed God's judgments as a vindictive action prompted by a motive for revenge and supported by a tumultuous wrath that must be pacified. NOT SO! Such is a gross caricature of our God! His mercy and grace are super-abundant, His mercy endures to all ages, and though He finds it necessary to chasten, His wisdom and righteousness produce a just and pure chastisement conditioned to correct the situation, and bring forth a creature prepared to respond to the delivering and redeeming power of God. ALL OF GOD'S JUDGMENTS ARE CORRECTIVE IN NATURE, conceived in His wisdom, motivated by His love, administered by His power, and used to work out the divine purpose, into our good, and unto His praise!

This does not deny that "the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men" (Rom. 1:18). There is no doubt whatever as to the fact that the Bible clearly teaches wrath - not only in this age but in that which is to come and in dim and distant ages beyond that. But it is a just wrath; the judgment is everywhere said to be ACCORDING TO OUR WORKS (Ps. 62:12; Rom. 2:6; Rev. 20:12-13). The punishment will fit the offense, and it is for a purpose. If we teach that it is endless we will have to tear the Bible all to pieces.

Source: The Savior of the World, by J. Preston Eby
Kindgdom Bible Studies Savior of the World Series Part 1
 
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ClementofA

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1 John 3:15
15 Anyone who hates a brother or sister is a murderer, and you know that no murderer has eternal life residing in him.

[snip]

13 I write these things to you who believe in the name of the Son of God so that you may know that you have eternal life.
The converse of this is that those "who do not believe in the name of the Son of God so that you may know that you do not have eternal life."

Regarding the finiteness of "eternal life" (aionion zoe) in John, you never responded to this:

…..In these 9 verses, Jesus defines “aionios” as “eternal.”
Jesus used the word “aionios” 29 times, He never used “aionios” to refer to something mundane which cannot be eternal.
[1]John 6:58
(58) This is the bread that came down from heaven. Your ancestors ate manna and died, but whoever feeds on this bread will live forever.[αἰώνιος/aionios]
In this verse Jesus contrasts “aionios life” with “death.” If “live aionios” is only a finite period, a finite period is not opposite “death.” Thus “aionios” by definition here means “eternal.”

1) The Greek word there is not aionios, as you state, but aiona meaning age, eon.
2) So your conclusion is, therefore, wrong.
3) Jesus contrasts the bread eaten by those who died with the bread that will make those who eat it live EIS "the age". EIS: to, into.
4) In light of 1) above, "forever" is a misleading, erroneous, deceptive translation.
5) A more literal & less misleading translation is found in a number of more literal Bible versions, such as, for example:
Jn.6:58 This is the Bread which descends out of heaven. Not according as the fathers ate and died; he who is masticating this Bread shall be living for the eon (CLV)
6) Of course an "age", i.e. "eon", can be finite.
7) That doesn't mean believers live only for a finite period. (There is no "only" in the verse).
8) The verse doesn't address the question of how long they live or eternal destinies of anyone. Other Scriptures do that, such as when we are told we will be "immortal", cannot die anymore, will always be with the Lord, all will be saved eventually, each in their own order, etc.
9) You say: "If “live aionios” is only a finite period, a finite period is not opposite “death.” But you err, as life is opposite(antonym) to death: Thesaurus results for DEATH
10) Moreover those who are believers during church age history who obtain "life eonian" in the finite millennial age will also receive immortality, i.e. endless life.
11) So their life will be eternal, but not due to the word "aionion".


[2]John 10:28
(28) I give them eternal [αἰώνιος/aionios] life, and they shall never [ου μη/ou mé] [αἰών/aion] perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand.
See note on ou mé at bottom. In this verse Jesus pairs “aionios” and “aion” with “[not] snatch them out of my hand.” If “aion/aionios” means “age(s), a finite period,” that is not the opposite of “[not] snatch them out of my hand’” “Aionios life” by definition here means “eternal life.”

1) In this verse once more the word aiona (eon, age) occurs and the translators left it out! They didn't even bother to translate it!
2) Your quoted version is misleading, unlike a number of more literal versions such as:
Jn.10:28 And I am giving them life eonian, and they should by no means be perishing for the eon, and no one shall be snatching them out of My hand." (CLV)
3)"Definition of eonian...variant spelling of aeonian"
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/eonia
"aeonian, from Greek aiṓnios "lasting an age, perpetual" (derivative of aiṓn eon) + 2-an; aeonic from eon + 1-ic"
Definition of AEONIAN
4) Concerning the alleged claim: "If “aion/aionios” means “age(s), a finite period,” that is not the opposite of “[not] snatch them out of my hand’”
a) Aion most certainly means an age, e.g.: Strong's Greek: 165. αἰών (aión) -- a space of time, an age
b) Obviously an "age" (eon) can be a finite period.
c) Just because no one shall be "snatching" a believer out of Jesus' hand does not necessarily mean that the believer has "eternal security" or that the believer cannot - jump - out of His hand, i.e. fall away, backslide, & reject Him thereafter.
d) In the larger context of the passage i suggest that Jesus is not addressing final eternal destinies at all, but contrasting destinies in the eon to come.
e) Scripture speaks of multiple eons to come, so arguably the eon to come is finite.
f) "And I am giving them life eonian". As long as they believe in Him till they die "in Christ" or until His return. If they believe only "for a while" (Lk.8:13) then all bets are off, including remaining in His "hand".
g) "they should by no means be perishing for the eon". If they have believed till their death or His return, then they won't perish for the millennial eon. Unlike some others who may (or do) die then (Isa.65:20).
h) They will also have immortality & be always with the Lord.
i) By virtue of having immortality they will have endless life, not because they obtained eonian life, life in the eon to come.
j) So the passage has an alternate interpretation without requiring eonian mean "eternal" as you claim it does there.
5. Der Alter states: "If “aion/aionios” means “age(s), a finite period,” that is not the opposite of “[not] snatch them out of my hand’” " Why should they have to be the "opposite" of one another & not instead just separate pieces of info Jesus gives in the verse re blessings to be obtained by those who continue in faith?

[3]John 3:15
(15) That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal [αιωνιον] life.
[4] John 3:16
(16) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting [αιωνιον] life.
In the above two verses Jesus pairs “aionion” with “should not perish.” Believers could eventually perish in a finite period, thus by definition “aionion life” here means eternal or everlasting life.

1) No, there is at least one other explanation that refutes your claim. Namely that believers who are promised aionion(eonian) life - if aionion(eonian) life is in a finite period, such as the millennial eon - could not perish because they will have immortality when Christ returns at the beginning of the millennial eon. Assuming they keep on believing till Christ's return or they died "in Christ" - in which case they will obtain immortality when He returns (1 Cor.15:51-56) - and do not merely believe "for a while" (Lk.8:13).
2) So your argument is not only unsound logically but also unscriptural. Ye do err, not knowing the Scriptures re immortality.
3) A better translation is not "believeth", but "is believing" since the requirement is a continual believing, not a temporary believing just "for a while" (Lk.8:13).
4) Your quoted version is misleading, unlike a number of more literal versions such as:
John3:15 that everyone believing on Him should not be perishing, but may be having life eonian." 16 For thus God loves the world, so that He gives His only-begotten Son, that everyone who is believing in Him should not be perishing, but may be having life eonian." (CLV)
5)"Definition of eonian...variant spelling of aeonian"
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/eonia
"aeonian, from Greek aiṓnios "lasting an age, perpetual" (derivative of aiṓn eon) + 2-an; aeonic from eon + 1-ic" Definition of AEONIAN
6) The next verse states the purpose of Love Omnipotent's - divine will - in sending His Son:

For God did not send His Son into the world that He might judge the world, but that the world would be saved through Him. (Jn.3:17)

The IVA ("that") is used in Jn.3:17 above. BDAG says “In many cases purpose and result cannot be clearly differentiated, and hence ἵνα is used for the result that follows according to the purpose of the subj. or of God. As in Semitic and Gr-Rom. thought, purpose and result are identical in declarations of the *divine will*…” Перевод ἵνα с греческого на все языки

The "result" of God sending His Son into the world will be to save it (Jn.3:17).


[5]John 5:24
(24) Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting [αἰώνιος] life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life.
In this verse Jesus pairs “aionios” with “shall not come into condemnation” and “passed from death unto life.” “Aionios” does not mean “a finite period,” by definition here it means “eternal,” unless Jesus lets His followers come into condemnation and pass into death.

1) Much of what i've already pointed out above re other verses in John applies here as well.
2) So once again your argument re aionion fails.
3) Re the comment above "unless Jesus lets His followers come into condemnation and pass into death." Of course that can happen when any of His followers believe only "for a while" (Lk.8:13) or makes shipwreck of their faith (1 Tim.1:19) or does not continue in faith (Col.1:21-23).
4) A more literal & less misleading translation is found in a number of more literal Bible versions, such as:
John 5:24 Verily, verily, I am saying to you that he who is hearing My word and believing Him Who sends Me, has life eonian and is not coming into judging, but has proceeded out of death into life. (CLV)
6) The "not coming into condemnation" in the verse is conditionally dependent on the "believing". If one eternally believes then one will eternally never come into condemnation.
7) Believing continually also results in eonian life, but that doesn't mean eonian life, life in the coming eon, or the eon itself, is eternal.
8) Although those who obtain life in the coming eon will have immortality, which is eternal life.
9) And as they will be always with the Lord (1 Thess.4:17) & God will be "all in all" (1 Cor.15:28), they will be blessed & never come into condemnation.
10) Der Alter states: "In this verse Jesus pairs “aionios” with “shall not come into condemnation” and “passed from death unto life.” " They are in the same verse, but it is continual belief until one has immortality - not aionios - that results in "shall not come into condemnation" & "passed from death unto life".
11. Der Alter says: "“Aionios” does not mean “a finite period,” by definition here it means “eternal,” unless Jesus lets His followers come into condemnation and pass into death." That is not necessarily the case. The reason being that not coming into condemnation does not have to be dependent on aionion life meaning eternal life. Something that you appear to assume. Jesus doesn't condemn the person, not because they will attain to eonian life (life in the millenial eon), but because they believe in Him! So your argument fails.

continued in my next post...
 
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ClementofA

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[6]John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting [αἰώνιος/aionios] life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.
In this verse Jesus contrasts aionios life with “shall not see life.” If aionios means an indefinite age that is not opposite “shall not see life” By definition aionios means eternal.

1) Again much of what i've pointed out above re other verses in John applies here as well.
2) So once again your argument re aionion fails.
3) A more literal & less misleading translation is found in a number of more literal Bible versions, such as, for example:
John 3:36 He who is believing in the Son has life eonian, yet he who is stubborn as to the Son shall not be seeing life, but the indignation of God is remaining on him." (CLV)
4) The fact is we all have been "stubborn", so if your reasoning were correct, then no one could ever be saved!
5) But the wrath or "indignation" is only on the "stubborn" unbeliever as long as he remains stubborn. Once we ceased being stubborn & believed, God's wrath was no longer on us.
6) Nothing in Jn.3:36 states that the stubborn cannot turn to God postmortem.
7) The verse speaks of one who "shall not see life". What "life"? The eonian life of the context that the believer will obtain? The life of God?
8) What's to say that this "eonian life" is not life in the next & finite eon, e.g. a 1000 year eon? Jesus says much the same in Mk.10:30 & Lk.18:30, that believers will receive "in the coming eon, life eonian".
9) Yet Scripture often speaks of multiple eons to come, so the coming eon must be finite. So why would the "life eonian" obtained in it (Mk.10:30) also not be finite?
10) Der Alter's states: "If aionios means an indefinite age that is not opposite “shall not see life By definition aionios means eternal." What the premises are for his conclusion are not properly laid out, so who knows what he's thinking. Does anyone? Maybe he should try laying it out clearly something like this, so people can understand what he's trying to communicate:

"Premise 1. The world is an organized system.
Premise 2. Every organized system must have a creator.
Conclusion. The creator of the world is God."



[7]John 4:14 But whosoever drinketh of the water that I shall give him shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall be in him a well of water springing up into everlasting [αἰώνιος/aionios] life.
In this verse Jesus contrasts aionios with “shall never thirst.” If aionios means an indefinite age that is not opposite “shall never thirst.” By definition aionios means eternal.

1) Again much of what i've pointed out above re other verses in John applies here as well.
2) So once again your argument re aionion fails.
3) In this verse once more the word aiona (eon, age) occurs and once again (as in John 10:28 above) the translators misled people and left it out! They didn't even bother to translate it! As shown here: https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh4.pdf
4) A more literal & less misleading translation is found in a number of more literal Bible versions, such as, for example:
Jn.4:14 yet whoever may be drinking of the water which I shall be giving him, shall under no circumstances be thirsting for the eon, but the water which I shall be giving him will become in him a spring of water, welling up into life eonian. (CLV)
5) In the above translation "life eonian" is paired opposite to "for the eon".
6) If the eon in view is the coming eon, then the coming eon may be finite, for Scripture speaks in many passages of multiple future eons.
7) In light of 5) & 6) above, arguably the "life eonian" referred to in Jn.4:14 is finite.
8) Der Alter's conclusion here is dismissed as it is based on the misleading translation “shall never thirst.”
9) If anything, with the proper translation, "under no circumstances be thirsting for the eon", the opposite conclusion is more warranted.
10) No wonder the Early Church Father, Origen, in commenting on this verse spoke of "after eonian life":

"And after eternal(eonian) life, perhaps it will also leap into the Father who is beyond eternal(eonian) life."
Commentary on the Gospel According to John, Books 13-32


[8]John 6:27
(27) Labour not for the meat which perisheth, but for that meat which endureth unto everlasting [αἰώνιος/aionios] life, which the Son of man shall give unto you: for him hath God the Father sealed.
In this verse Jesus contrasts “aionios meat” with “meat that perishes.” If aionios means an indefinite age that is not opposite “meat that perishes.” By definition aionios means eternal.

1) Again much of what i've pointed out above re other verses in John applies here as well.
2) So once again your argument re aionion fails.
3) A more literal & less misleading translation is found in a number of more literal Bible versions, such as, for example:
Jn.6:27 Do not work for the food which is perishing, but for the food which is remaining for life eonian, which the Son of Mankind will be giving to you, for this One God, the Father, seals. (CLV)
4) You evidently think "etenal" is an opposite for "perish". However Websters' Dictionary lists "age" as a near antonym("opposite") for "perish", but it doesn't list "eternal" at all: Thesaurus results for PERISH
5) Jesus says "Do not work for...food", but Paul says to work, & if you don't work, you don't eat (2 Thess.3:10). So what, really, is Jesus saying there? Is He contradicting Paul or does His statement have a deeper meaning?
6) Der Alter says "In this verse Jesus contrasts “aionios meat” with “meat that perishes.” " But the verse doesn't even use the words "aionios meat". He made that up out of thin air.


[9]John 8:51
(51) Very truly [αμην αμην/amen amen] I tell you, whoever obeys my word will never [ου μη εις τον αιωνα/ou mé eis ton aiōna] see death."

1. In this verse once more the word aiona (eon, age) occurs and once again (as in John 10:28 above) the translators misled people and left it out! They didn't even bother to translate it! As shown here: https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh8.pdf
2) A more literal & less misleading translation is found in a number of more literal Bible versions, such as, for example:
Jn.8:51 Verily, Verily, I am saying to you, If ever anyone should be keeping My word, he should under no circumstances be beholding death for the eon. (CLV)


…..According to noted Greek scholar Marvin Vincent,
● The double negative [ου μη/ou mé] signifies in nowise, by no means. Θεωρήσῃ[theōrésé], denoting steady, protracted vision, is purposely used, because the promise contemplates the entire course of the believer's life in Christ. It is not, shall not die forever, but shall live eternally.

That's exactly how the version of Jn.10:28 i posted above translated it, "by no means be perishing for the eon". But as you can see, it is limited by "for the eon". Which your translation completely failed to translate!

● ④οὐ marker of reinforced negation, in combination w. μή, οὐ μή has the effect of strengthening the negation (Kühner-G. II 221–23; Schwyzer II 317; Mlt. 187–92 [a thorough treatment of NT usage]; B-D-F §365; RLudwig: D. prophet. Wort 31 ’37, 272–79; JLee, NovT 27, ’85, 18–23; B-D-F §365.—Pla., Hdt. et al. [Kühner-G. loc. cit.]; SIG 1042, 16; POxy 119, 5, 14f; 903, 16; PGM 5, 279; 13, 321; LXX; TestAbr A 8 p. 85, 11 [Stone p. 46]; JosAs 20:3; GrBar 1:7; ApcEsdr 2:7; Just., D. 141, 2). οὐ μή is the most decisive way of negativing something in the future.[1]
Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000)A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian Literature.(3rd Ed). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.

If it's the "most decisive way of negating something in the future", why didn't God use it to say something like "unbelievers will never (ou me) be saved? You shot your own doctrine in the foot with that one.

If Jesus wished to express endless punishment, then He would have used expressions such as "endless", "no end" & "never be saved" as per:

How Scripture expresses endless duration (not aion/ios) (paradise, hell, punishment) - Christianity - - City-Data Forum

Jesus didn't use the best words & expressions to describe endlessness in regards to punishment, because He didn't believe in endless punishment.

ENDLESSNESS not applied to eschatological PUNISHMENT in Scripture:

could an 'eternal punishment' simply mean that once instituted it will not change?

Why didn't you list the page number for that BAGD entry?

● The combinations with οὐ μή also be noticed as, ουδεν οὐ μή (Lu. 10:19); οὐ μή se σε άνο ουδ ου σε εγκαταιπο (Heb. 13:5); ουκετι οὐ μή (Rev. 18:14). There is no denying the power of this accumulation of negatives. Cf. the English hymn "I'll never, no never, no never forsake."
Grammar Of The Greek New Testament In The Light Of Historical Research
By A. T. Robertson, M.A., D.D., Ll.D., Litt.D. p.1165.

Powerful negatives never used of the damnation of the lost.

I rest my case.
 
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Der Alte

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A quick Google search and you will find everything you are looking for. I am not going to do all your homework for you.'
You refuse to quote sources, tell me to google them then demand of me,
"I have really tried to be patient and have done you the courtesy of responding to every verse. Can you do the same for the verses that I provided now, please."
Before you make demands of me please follow your own request.
1. Please learn what an analogy is.
2. Yes, it was. John 14:30, 1 John 5:19. John 12:31.
3. Yes, he did. Revelation 12:9.
4. Yes, it did. Ephesians 2:2
5. Please learn what a hyperbole is.
6. I would say the work of the disciples caused ripples around the world, wouldn't you?
7. Possibly. Could also be a hyperbole.
8. Read his letters to the early churches and let me know what you think.
9. I'm sure he wanted to.
10. Possibly. Could also be a hyperbole.
11. It is now.
12. It seemed like it but nonetheless it is a hyperbole.
13. I think you and I can both recognize a figure of speech when we see one.
14. The end of their world, yes.
15. This is a metaphor.
And many of the uses of "aionios" is hyperbole/metaphor as I said. I have proved that the inherent meaning of "aionios" is "eternal" and "aion" is "eternity" any other use is hyperbole or other figure of speech.
Just because either word simply refers to something which could not be eternal that does NOT define the word as I have done with 24 occurrences of aion/aionios.

Can you do the same for the verses that I provided now, please. Please tell me what you think "aeon/aeonios/aeonion" means in the context of how they are used for the scriptures from my OP.
You did not post the OP of this thread I don't know which post you are referring to. Unless it is one of the 24 verses I listed, any occurrence of aion/aionios referring to something which cannot be eternal is hyperbole. Here is one of the vss. I posted.
John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting [αἰώνιος/aionios] life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.
Here "aoinios" is defined as "eternal," Jesus contrasted "aionios life" with “shall not see life” and paired it with "the wrath of God abides on him,"
Jesus did not say "Someday they will see life" and/or "someday the wrath of God will not abide in him."

 
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FineLinen

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God's precious people, saturated and literally "oozing" with the false doctrines of the harlot Church systems have long viewed God's judgments as a vindictive action prompted by a motive for revenge and supported by a tumultuous wrath that must be pacified. NOT SO! Such is a gross caricature of our God! His mercy and grace are super-abundant, His mercy endures to all ages, and though He finds it necessary to chasten, His wisdom and righteousness produce a just and pure chastisement conditioned to correct the situation, and bring forth a creature prepared to respond to the delivering and redeeming power of God. ALL OF GOD'S JUDGMENTS ARE CORRECTIVE IN NATURE, conceived in His wisdom, motivated by His love, administered by His power, and used to work out the divine purpose, into our good, and unto His praise!

This does not deny that "the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men" (Rom. 1:18). There is no doubt whatever as to the fact that the Bible clearly teaches wrath - not only in this age but in that which is to come and in dim and distant ages beyond that. But it is a just wrath; the judgment is everywhere said to be ACCORDING TO OUR WORKS (Ps. 62:12; Rom. 2:6; Rev. 20:12-13). The punishment will fit the offense, and it is for a purpose. If we teach that it is endless we will have to tear the Bible all to pieces.

Source: The Savior of the World, by J. Preston Eby
Kingdom Bible Studies Savior of the World Series Part 1

Saint: I for one am feeling refreshed in spirit by the wonderful depth of brother Eby. Thank you for the time you are spending on this enterprise!

How it has taken so long to view our long suffering Father in such a ghastly light I will never know?

One thing I do know =

The steadfast love of the Lord never ceases: EVER!
 
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agapelove

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And many of the uses of "aionios" is hyperbole/metaphor as I said. I have proved that the inherent meaning of "aionios" is "eternal" and "aion" is "eternity" any other use is hyperbole or other figure of speech.
Just because either word simply refers to something which could not be eternal that does NOT define the word as I have done with 24 occurrences of aion/aionios.

You did not post the OP of this thread I don't know which post you are referring to. Unless it is one of the 24 verses I listed, any occurrence of aion/aionios referring to something which cannot be eternal is hyperbole. Here is one of the vss. I posted.
John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son hath everlasting [αἰώνιος/aionios] life: and he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.
Here "aoinios" is defined as "eternal," Jesus contrasted "aionios life" with “shall not see life” and paired it with "the wrath of God abides on him,"
Jesus did not say "Someday they will see life" and/or "someday the wrath of God will not abide in him."

No, the usage of "aionios/aion" here as "eternity/forever" does not make sense as a hyperbole or any other figure of speech as a matter of fact.

Ephesians 1:21: “…in accordance with the working of the strength of His might which He brought about in Christ, when He raised Him from the dead and seated Him at His right hand in the heavenly places, far above all rule and authority and power and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this eternity/forever [αἰῶνι (aiōni)] but also in the one to come.

Ephesians 2:7: "When we were dead in our transgressions, God made us alive together with Christ, and raised us up with Him, and seated us with Him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, so that in the eternity/forever to come [αἰῶσιν (aiōsin)] He might show the surpassing riches of His grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus.”

1 Corinthians 10:11: These things happened to them as examples for us. They were written down to warn us who live at the end of the eternity/forever [αἰώνων (aiōnōn)].

1 Corinthians 2:7: No, we declare God's wisdom, a mystery that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before eternity/forever [αἰώνων (aiōnōn)] began.

And likewise for all the verses I posted literally on the previous page. But I understand if clicking back one page is too much work for you. You are forcing a meaning where it will not work and then calling it a hyperbole. That's not how figure of speeches work.

Also I have already previously explained to you what JESUS defines "aionios life" to be. John 17:3 Now this is eternal life: that they KNOW YOU.

Therefore allow scripture to interpret scripture.

John 3:36 He that believeth on the Son shall know God: and he that believeth not the Son shall not know God; but the wrath of God abideth on him.

Jesus is not saying "Whoever believes will live forever and whoever does not believe will not live forever." Nobody is saying that there is no way that "aionios" can ever mean eternal. I also disagree with people who say "aionios" means temporary. We must both acknowledge that the most accurate, holistic definition is "an undefined period of time/age."

Strong's Concordance
aión: a space of time, an age
Original Word: αἰών, ῶνος, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: aión
Phonetic Spelling: (ahee-ohn')
Definition: a space of time, an age
Usage: an age, a cycle (of time), especially of the present age as contrasted with the future age, and of one of a series of ages stretching to infinity.
 
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Those who are hard and impenitent of heart treasure up for themselves wrath in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God who will render to every man according to his works. If you don't believe it, ask the antediluvians, ask Korah and his followers, ask the inhabitants of Sodom and Gomorrah, ask the Jews who passed through the holocaust, and ask all the rest of men who have lived and died trampling under foot the righteousness and mercy of the Lord. To them that are rebellious and obey not the truth but obey unrighteousness shall be wrath, indignation, tribulation and anguish upon every soul. All that the Scriptures actually teach about the wrath of God will surely come to pass. The wrath of God is an awful thing and it is not my purpose to minimize it in the least. I do rejoice, however, in the knowledge that it will accomplish its work until all men are broken before God and call upon Him for mercy full and abundant.

Thank God - He has a plan! And it will work. You can count on it. Grace has intervened. Love will conquer. The wisdom of God will be vindicated. God will actually WIN! Hallelujah! Isn't THAT good news! The devil will have none left to possess. The grave will claim not one victim. Death will hold no more power over any creature anywhere in all God's vast universe, for death shall be DESTROYED. Sin and rebellion shall raise their ugly heads no more, for God will be all in all. YOU CAN COUNT ON IT! THAT IS GOD'S PLAN!

Source: The Savior of the World, by J. Preston Eby
Kindgdom Bible Studies Savior of the World Series Part 1
 
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Strong's Concordance
aión: a space of time, an age
Original Word: αἰών, ῶνος, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: aión
Phonetic Spelling: (ahee-ohn')
Definition: a space of time, an age
Usage: an age, a cycle (of time), especially of the present age as contrasted with the future age, and of one of a series of ages stretching to infinity.
Strong's is not a lexicon it is a concordance it only shows where words occur and how they are translated in the KJV. It is not based in lexical studies.
• Online Bible FAQ
Q:The Online Bible Strongs is not the same as my Exhaustive Strong’s Concordance. Why is that?
A: We used the Strong's system but the actual Greek and Hebrew to implement the numbers. By doing this we corrected about 15000 errors in the Strong's concordance.
Frequently Asked Questions - Online Bible Then click “The Online Bible Strongs is not the same as my Exhaustive Strong’s concordance.”
• Rebuilding Strong’s time-honored concordance from the ground up, biblical research experts John Kohlenberger and James Swanson have achieved unprecedented accuracy and clarity. Longstanding errors have been corrected. Omissions filled in. Word studies simplified. Thoroughness and ease of use have been united and maximized.
Zondervan Publishing the Strongest Strong’s.
The Strongest Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible
Strongest Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, The: 21st Century Edition
Links to BDB, Hebrew, and BAGD, Greek lexicons online.
Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew-English Lexicon to the Old Testament : Francis Brown : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive
A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, Gingrich & Danker

= = = = = = = =
αἰώνιος (ία ③ pert. to a period of unending duration, without end (Diod S 1, 1, 5; 5, 73, 1; 15, 66, 1 δόξα αἰ. everlasting fame; in Diod S 1, 93, 1 the Egyptian dead are said to have passed to their αἰ. οἴκησις;/[eternal home] Arrian, Peripl. 1, 4 ἐς μνήμην αἰ.; Jos., Bell. 4, 461 αἰ. χάρις=a benefaction for all future time; OGI 383, 10 [I b.c.] εἰς χρόνον αἰ.; EOwen, οἶκος αἰ.: JTS 38, ’37, 248–50; EStommel, Domus Aeterna: RAC IV 109–28) of the next life σκηναὶ αἰ. Lk 16:9 (cp. En 39:5). οἰκία, contrasted w. the οἰκία ἐπίγειος, of the glorified body 2 Cor 5:1. διαθήκη (Gen 9:16; 17:7; Lev 24:8; 2 Km 23:5 al.; PsSol 10:4 al.) Hb 13:20. εὐαγγέλιον Rv 14:6; κράτος in a doxolog. formula (=εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας) 1 Ti 6:16. παράκλησις 2 Th 2:16. λύτρωσις Hb 9:12. κληρονομία (Esth 4:17m) vs. 15; AcPl Ha 8, 21. αἰ. ἀπέχειν τινά (opp. πρὸς ὥραν) keep someone forever Phlm 15 (cp. Job 40:28). Very often of God’s judgment (Diod S 4, 63, 4 διὰ τὴν ἀσέβειαν ἐν ᾅδου διατελεῖν τιμωρίας αἰωνίου τυγχάνοντα; similarly 4, 69, 5; Jer 23:40; Da 12:2; Ps 76:6; 4 Macc 9:9; 13:15) κόλασις αἰ. (TestReub 5:5) Mt 25:46; 2 Cl 6:7; κρίμα αἰ. Hb 6:2 (cp. κρίσις αἰ. En 104:5). θάνατος B 20:1. ὄλεθρον (4 Macc 10:15) 2 Th 1:9. πῦρ (4 Macc 12:12; GrBar 4:16.—SibOr 8, 401 φῶς αἰ.) Mt 18:8; 25:41; Jd 7; Dg 10:7 (cp. 1QS 2:8). ἁμάρτημα Mk 3:29 (v.l. κρίσεως, κολάσεω, and ἁμαρτίας). On the other hand, of eternal life (Maximus Tyr. 6, 1d θεοῦ ζωὴ αἰ.; Diod S 8, 15, 3 life μετὰ τὸν θάνατον lasts εἰς ἅπαντα αἰῶνα; Da 12:2; 4 Macc 15:3;PsSol PsSol 3:12; OdeSol 11:16c; JosAs 8:11 cod. A [p. 50, 2 Bat.]; Philo, Fuga 78; Jos., Bell. 1, 650; SibOr 2, 336) in the Reign of God: ζωὴ αἰ. (Orig., C. Cels. 2, 77, 3) Mt 19:16, 29; 25:46; Mk 10:17, 30; Lk 10:25; 18:18, 30; J 3:15f, 36; 4:14, 36; 5:24, 39; 6:27, 40, 47, 54, 68; 10:28; 12:25, 50; 17:2f; Ac 13:46, 48; Ro 2:7; 5:21; 6:22f; Gal 6:8; 1 Ti 1:16; 6:12; Tit 1:2; 3:7; 1J 1:2; 2:25; 3:15; 5:11, 13, 20; Jd 21; D 10:3; 2 Cl 5:5; 8:4, 6; IEph 18:1; Hv 2, 3, 2; 3, 8, 4 al. Also βασιλεία αἰ. 2 Pt 1:11 [everlasting kingdom](ApcPt Rainer 9; cp. Da 4:3; 7:27; Philo, Somn. 2, 285; Mel., P. 68, 493; OGI 569, 24 ὑπὲρ τῆς αἰωνίου καὶ ἀφθάρτου βασιλείας ὑμῶν; Dssm. B 279f, BS 363). Of the glory in the next life δόξα αἰ. 2 Ti 2:10; 1 Pt 5:10 (cp. Wsd 10:14; Jos., Ant. 15, 376.—SibOr 8, 410 φῶς αἰῶνιον). αἰώνιον βάρος δόξης 2 Cor 4:17; σωτηρία αἰ. (Is 45:17; Ps.- Clem., Hom. 1, 19) Hb 5:9; short ending of Mk. Of unseen glory in contrast to the transitory world of the senses τὰ μὴ βλεπόμενα αἰώνια 2 Cor 4:18.—χαρά IPhld ins; δοξάζεσθαι αἰωνίῳ ἔργῳ be glorified by an everlasting deed IPol 8:1. DHill, Gk. Words and Hebr. Mngs. ’67, 186–201; JvanderWatt, NovT 31, ’89, 217–28 (J).—DELG s.v. αἰών. M-M. TW. Sv [1]

[1] Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., pp. 33–34). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.
= = = = = = = = =
Greek is now, and has always been, the language of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church. Who, better than the native Greek speaking scholars who translated the Eastern Orthodox Bible [EOB], knows the correct meaning of Greek words, e.g. “Gehenna,””aionios” and “kolasis?”
…..Note, in the EOB, There is this footnote.
Hades is the realm of the dead. The upper part of hades was considered to be luminous and it was called “paradise” or "Abrham's bosom.” Hades is not to be confused with hell (Gehenna) which is the final place of state or place of the damned (“the lake of’ fire”).
Also in the EOB Paul uses “αιονιον/aionon,” in 1 Tim 1:17 synonymous with “αιδιος/aidios” in Rom 1:20, see below.
The Eastern/Greek Orthodox Bible EOB—New Testament 96
Matthew 25:46 Then he will answer them saying ‘Amen. I tell you: as much as you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to me.' “These [[ones on the left]] will go away into eternal punishment.[κολασιν αιονιον/kolasin aiōnion] but the righteous into eternal life.
= = = = = = =
Romans 1:20 For since the creation of the world, his invisible things are clearly seen. They perceived through created things, even his everlasting [τε αιδιος/te aidios] power and divinity.
= = = = = = = =
1 Timothy 1:17 Now, to the eternal [των αιωνων/tōn aiōnōn] King. immortal. invisible, to God who alone is wise, be honor and glory unto ages of ages. Amen.
In 1 Tim 1:17 Paul not only uses "aionon" synonymous with "aidios," in Rom 1:20, but also defines it by pairing it with "immortal" in the same verse.
https://azbyka.ru/otechnik/books/or...tament-(The-Eastern-Greek-Orthodox-Bible).pdf
The Eastern/Greek Orthodox Bible EOB—New Testament 96 can be D/L at the link above. If anyone chooses to consult the EOB version I suggest they read the preface which summarizes the extensive Greek scholarship supporting this translation.​
 
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agapelove

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Strong's is not a lexicon it is a concordance it only shows where words occur and how they are translated in the KJV. It is not based in lexical studies.
• Online Bible FAQ
Q:The Online Bible Strongs is not the same as my Exhaustive Strong’s Concordance. Why is that?
A: We used the Strong's system but the actual Greek and Hebrew to implement the numbers. By doing this we corrected about 15000 errors in the Strong's concordance.
Frequently Asked Questions - Online Bible Then click “The Online Bible Strongs is not the same as my Exhaustive Strong’s concordance.”
• Rebuilding Strong’s time-honored concordance from the ground up, biblical research experts John Kohlenberger and James Swanson have achieved unprecedented accuracy and clarity. Longstanding errors have been corrected. Omissions filled in. Word studies simplified. Thoroughness and ease of use have been united and maximized.
Zondervan Publishing the Strongest Strong’s.
The Strongest Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible
Strongest Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, The: 21st Century Edition
Links to BDB, Hebrew, and BAGD, Greek lexicons online.
Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew-English Lexicon to the Old Testament : Francis Brown : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive
A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, Gingrich & Danker

= = = = = = = =
αἰώνιος (ία ③ pert. to a period of unending duration, without end (Diod S 1, 1, 5; 5, 73, 1; 15, 66, 1 δόξα αἰ. everlasting fame; in Diod S 1, 93, 1 the Egyptian dead are said to have passed to their αἰ. οἴκησις;/[eternal home] Arrian, Peripl. 1, 4 ἐς μνήμην αἰ.; Jos., Bell. 4, 461 αἰ. χάρις=a benefaction for all future time; OGI 383, 10 [I b.c.] εἰς χρόνον αἰ.; EOwen, οἶκος αἰ.: JTS 38, ’37, 248–50; EStommel, Domus Aeterna: RAC IV 109–28) of the next life σκηναὶ αἰ. Lk 16:9 (cp. En 39:5). οἰκία, contrasted w. the οἰκία ἐπίγειος, of the glorified body 2 Cor 5:1. διαθήκη (Gen 9:16; 17:7; Lev 24:8; 2 Km 23:5 al.; PsSol 10:4 al.) Hb 13:20. εὐαγγέλιον Rv 14:6; κράτος in a doxolog. formula (=εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας) 1 Ti 6:16. παράκλησις 2 Th 2:16. λύτρωσις Hb 9:12. κληρονομία (Esth 4:17m) vs. 15; AcPl Ha 8, 21. αἰ. ἀπέχειν τινά (opp. πρὸς ὥραν) keep someone forever Phlm 15 (cp. Job 40:28). Very often of God’s judgment (Diod S 4, 63, 4 διὰ τὴν ἀσέβειαν ἐν ᾅδου διατελεῖν τιμωρίας αἰωνίου τυγχάνοντα; similarly 4, 69, 5; Jer 23:40; Da 12:2; Ps 76:6; 4 Macc 9:9; 13:15) κόλασις αἰ. (TestReub 5:5) Mt 25:46; 2 Cl 6:7; κρίμα αἰ. Hb 6:2 (cp. κρίσις αἰ. En 104:5). θάνατος B 20:1. ὄλεθρον (4 Macc 10:15) 2 Th 1:9. πῦρ (4 Macc 12:12; GrBar 4:16.—SibOr 8, 401 φῶς αἰ.) Mt 18:8; 25:41; Jd 7; Dg 10:7 (cp. 1QS 2:8). ἁμάρτημα Mk 3:29 (v.l. κρίσεως, κολάσεω, and ἁμαρτίας). On the other hand, of eternal life (Maximus Tyr. 6, 1d θεοῦ ζωὴ αἰ.; Diod S 8, 15, 3 life μετὰ τὸν θάνατον lasts εἰς ἅπαντα αἰῶνα; Da 12:2; 4 Macc 15:3;PsSol PsSol 3:12; OdeSol 11:16c; JosAs 8:11 cod. A [p. 50, 2 Bat.]; Philo, Fuga 78; Jos., Bell. 1, 650; SibOr 2, 336) in the Reign of God: ζωὴ αἰ. (Orig., C. Cels. 2, 77, 3) Mt 19:16, 29; 25:46; Mk 10:17, 30; Lk 10:25; 18:18, 30; J 3:15f, 36; 4:14, 36; 5:24, 39; 6:27, 40, 47, 54, 68; 10:28; 12:25, 50; 17:2f; Ac 13:46, 48; Ro 2:7; 5:21; 6:22f; Gal 6:8; 1 Ti 1:16; 6:12; Tit 1:2; 3:7; 1J 1:2; 2:25; 3:15; 5:11, 13, 20; Jd 21; D 10:3; 2 Cl 5:5; 8:4, 6; IEph 18:1; Hv 2, 3, 2; 3, 8, 4 al. Also βασιλεία αἰ. 2 Pt 1:11 [everlasting kingdom](ApcPt Rainer 9; cp. Da 4:3; 7:27; Philo, Somn. 2, 285; Mel., P. 68, 493; OGI 569, 24 ὑπὲρ τῆς αἰωνίου καὶ ἀφθάρτου βασιλείας ὑμῶν; Dssm. B 279f, BS 363). Of the glory in the next life δόξα αἰ. 2 Ti 2:10; 1 Pt 5:10 (cp. Wsd 10:14; Jos., Ant. 15, 376.—SibOr 8, 410 φῶς αἰῶνιον). αἰώνιον βάρος δόξης 2 Cor 4:17; σωτηρία αἰ. (Is 45:17; Ps.- Clem., Hom. 1, 19) Hb 5:9; short ending of Mk. Of unseen glory in contrast to the transitory world of the senses τὰ μὴ βλεπόμενα αἰώνια 2 Cor 4:18.—χαρά IPhld ins; δοξάζεσθαι αἰωνίῳ ἔργῳ be glorified by an everlasting deed IPol 8:1. DHill, Gk. Words and Hebr. Mngs. ’67, 186–201; JvanderWatt, NovT 31, ’89, 217–28 (J).—DELG s.v. αἰών. M-M. TW. Sv [1]

[1] Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., pp. 33–34). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.
= = = = = = = = =
Greek is now, and has always been, the language of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church. Who, better than the native Greek speaking scholars who translated the Eastern Orthodox Bible [EOB], knows the correct meaning of Greek words, e.g. “Gehenna,””aionios” and “kolasis?”
…..Note, in the EOB, There is this footnote.
Hades is the realm of the dead. The upper part of hades was considered to be luminous and it was called “paradise” or "Abrham's bosom.” Hades is not to be confused with hell (Gehenna) which is the final place of state or place of the damned (“the lake of’ fire”).
Also in the EOB Paul uses “αιονιον/aionon,” in 1 Tim 1:17 synonymous with “αιδιος/aidios” in Rom 1:20, see below.

The Eastern/Greek Orthodox Bible EOB—New Testament 96
Matthew 25:46 Then he will answer them saying ‘Amen. I tell you: as much as you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to me.' “These [[ones on the left]] will go away into eternal punishment.[κολασιν αιονιον/kolasin aiōnion] but the righteous into eternal life.

= = = = = = =
Romans 1:20 For since the creation of the world, his invisible things are clearly seen. They perceived through created things, even his everlasting [τε αιδιος/te aidios] power and divinity.

= = = = = = = =
1 Timothy 1:17 Now, to the eternal [των αιωνων/tōn aiōnōn] King. immortal. invisible, to God who alone is wise, be honor and glory unto ages of ages. Amen.

In 1 Tim 1:17 Paul not only uses "aionon" synonymous with "aidios," in Rom 1:20, but also defines it by pairing it with "immortal" in the same verse.
https://azbyka.ru/otechnik/books/or...tament-(The-Eastern-Greek-Orthodox-Bible).pdf
The Eastern/Greek Orthodox Bible EOB—New Testament 96 can be D/L at the link above. If anyone chooses to consult the EOB version I suggest they read the preface which summarizes the extensive Greek scholarship supporting this translation.

This monstrosity of a post still fails to address anything I have asked.

Please explain how and why "eternity/forever" does not and can not fit into the verses I have provided. Is there more than one eternity? Your sources claim aionon means without beginning or end, yet clearly there are Bible verses that contradict this. Care to explain?
 
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ClementofA

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αἰώνιος (ία ③ pert. to a period of unending duration, without end (Diod S 1, 1, 5; 5, 73, 1; 15, 66, 1 δόξα αἰ. everlasting fame; in Diod S 1, 93, 1 the Egyptian dead are said to have passed to their αἰ. οἴκησις;/[eternal home] Arrian, Peripl. 1, 4 ἐς μνήμην αἰ.; Jos., Bell. 4, 461 αἰ. χάρις=a benefaction for all future time; OGI 383, 10 [I b.c.] εἰς χρόνον αἰ.; EOwen, οἶκος αἰ.: JTS 38, ’37, 248–50; EStommel, Domus Aeterna: RAC IV 109–28) of the next life σκηναὶ αἰ. Lk 16:9 (cp. En 39:5). οἰκία, contrasted w. the οἰκία ἐπίγειος, of the glorified body 2 Cor 5:1. διαθήκη (Gen 9:16; 17:7; Lev 24:8; 2 Km 23:5 al.; PsSol 10:4 al.) Hb 13:20. εὐαγγέλιον Rv 14:6; κράτος in a doxolog. formula (=εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας) 1 Ti 6:16. παράκλησις 2 Th 2:16. λύτρωσις Hb 9:12. κληρονομία (Esth 4:17m) vs. 15; AcPl Ha 8, 21. αἰ. ἀπέχειν τινά (opp. πρὸς ὥραν) keep someone forever Phlm 15 (cp. Job 40:28). Very often of God’s judgment (Diod S 4, 63, 4 διὰ τὴν ἀσέβειαν ἐν ᾅδου διατελεῖν τιμωρίας αἰωνίου τυγχάνοντα; similarly 4, 69, 5; Jer 23:40; Da 12:2; Ps 76:6; 4 Macc 9:9; 13:15) κόλασις αἰ. (TestReub 5:5) Mt 25:46; 2 Cl 6:7; κρίμα αἰ. Hb 6:2 (cp. κρίσις αἰ. En 104:5). θάνατος B 20:1. ὄλεθρον (4 Macc 10:15) 2 Th 1:9. πῦρ (4 Macc 12:12; GrBar 4:16.—SibOr 8, 401 φῶς αἰ.) Mt 18:8; 25:41; Jd 7; Dg 10:7 (cp. 1QS 2:8). ἁμάρτημα Mk 3:29 (v.l. κρίσεως, κολάσεω, and ἁμαρτίας). On the other hand, of eternal life (Maximus Tyr. 6, 1d θεοῦ ζωὴ αἰ.; Diod S 8, 15, 3 life μετὰ τὸν θάνατον lasts εἰς ἅπαντα αἰῶνα; Da 12:2; 4 Macc 15:3;PsSol PsSol 3:12; OdeSol 11:16c; JosAs 8:11 cod. A [p. 50, 2 Bat.]; Philo, Fuga 78; Jos., Bell. 1, 650; SibOr 2, 336) in the Reign of God: ζωὴ αἰ. (Orig., C. Cels. 2, 77, 3) Mt 19:16, 29; 25:46; Mk 10:17, 30; Lk 10:25; 18:18, 30; J 3:15f, 36; 4:14, 36; 5:24, 39; 6:27, 40, 47, 54, 68; 10:28; 12:25, 50; 17:2f; Ac 13:46, 48; Ro 2:7; 5:21; 6:22f; Gal 6:8; 1 Ti 1:16; 6:12; Tit 1:2; 3:7; 1J 1:2; 2:25; 3:15; 5:11, 13, 20; Jd 21; D 10:3; 2 Cl 5:5; 8:4, 6; IEph 18:1; Hv 2, 3, 2; 3, 8, 4 al. Also βασιλεία αἰ. 2 Pt 1:11 [everlasting kingdom](ApcPt Rainer 9; cp. Da 4:3; 7:27; Philo, Somn. 2, 285; Mel., P. 68, 493; OGI 569, 24 ὑπὲρ τῆς αἰωνίου καὶ ἀφθάρτου βασιλείας ὑμῶν; Dssm. B 279f, BS 363). Of the glory in the next life δόξα αἰ. 2 Ti 2:10; 1 Pt 5:10 (cp. Wsd 10:14; Jos., Ant. 15, 376.—SibOr 8, 410 φῶς αἰῶνιον). αἰώνιον βάρος δόξης 2 Cor 4:17; σωτηρία αἰ. (Is 45:17; Ps.- Clem., Hom. 1, 19) Hb 5:9; short ending of Mk. Of unseen glory in contrast to the transitory world of the senses τὰ μὴ βλεπόμενα αἰώνια 2 Cor 4:18.—χαρά IPhld ins; δοξάζεσθαι αἰωνίῳ ἔργῳ be glorified by an everlasting deed IPol 8:1. DHill, Gk. Words and Hebr. Mngs. ’67, 186–201; JvanderWatt, NovT 31, ’89, 217–28 (J).—DELG s.v. αἰών. M-M. TW. Sv [1]
[1] Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., pp. 33–34). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.


The rest of your post was already addressed in this thread.

You left out part of BDAG's entry on aionion, including this portion:

"1. pert. to a long period of time, long ago χρόνοις αἰ. long ages ago Ro 16:25; πρὸ χρόνων αἰ. before time began 2 Ti 1:9; Tit 1:2 (in these two last pass. the prep. bears the semantic content of priority; on χρόνος αἰ. cp. OGI 248, 54; 383, 10)."

BDAG on aionios


Here's the Lidell Scott lexicon entry:

"Liddell, Scott Jones Lexicon of Classical GreekG166
• αἰώνιος, ον, also α, ον Pl. Ti. 37d, Heb_9:12 : —
1. lasting for an age (αἰών 11), perpetual, eternal (but dist. fr. ἀΐδιος, Plot. 3.7.3), μέθη Pl. R. 363d; ἀνώλεθρον.. ἀλλ' οὐκ αἰώνιον Id. Lg. 904a, cf. Epicur. Sent. 28; αἰ. κατὰ ψυχὴν ὄχλησις Id. Nat. 131 G.; κακά, δεινά, Phld. Herc. 1251.18, D. 1.13; αἰ. ἀμοιβαῖς βασανισθησόμενοι ib.19; τοῦ αἰ. θεοῦ Rom_16:26, Ti.Locr. 96c; οὐ χρονίη μοῦνον.. ἀλλ' αἰωνίη Aret. CA 1.5; αἰ. διαθήκη, νόμιμον, πρόσταγμα, LXX Gen_9:16, Ex. 27.21, To. 1.6; ζωή Mat_25:46, Porph. Abst. 4.20; κόλασις Matt. l.c., Olymp. in Grg. p.278J.; πρὸ χρόνων αἰ. 2Ti_1:9 : opp. πρόσκαιρος, 2Co_4:18.
2. holding an office or title for life, perpetual, γυμνασίαρχος CPHerm. 62.
3. = Lat. saecularis, Phleg. Macr. 4.
4. Adv. -ίως eternally νοῦς ἀκίνητος αἰ. πάντα ὤν Procl. Inst. 172, cf. Simp. in Epict. p.77D.; perpetually, μισεῖν Sch. E. Alc. 338.
5. αἰώνιον, τό, = ἀείζωον τὸ μέγα, Ps.- Dsc. 4.88."

Strong's #166 - αἰώνιος - Old & New Testament Greek Lexicon

Here's Moulton & Milligan's summary from the same page:

"In general, the word depicts that of which the horizon is not in view, whether the horizon be at an infinite distance, as in Catullus’ poignant lines—

...or whether it lies no farther than the span of a Cæsar’s life."

No scholar in the past 10,000 years agrees with your aion/ios/olam always mean "eternal" except when used in hyperbole theory.

Examples of aionios as a finite duration in Koine Greek:

Two Questions
Does aionios always mean eternal in ancient Koine Greek? (paradise, Gospel, hell) - Christianity - - City-Data Forum
Who Goes To Hell?

If Jesus wished to express endless punishment, then He would have used expressions such as "endless", "no end" & "never be saved" as per:

How Scripture expresses endless duration (not aion/ios) (paradise, hell, punishment) - Christianity - - City-Data Forum

Jesus didn't use the best words & expressions to describe endlessness in regards to punishment, because He didn't believe in endless punishment.

ENDLESSNESS not applied to eschatological PUNISHMENT in Scripture:

could an 'eternal punishment' simply mean that once instituted it will not change?

12 points re forever and ever (literally to/into "the ages of the ages") being finite:

For the Lord will NOT cast off FOR EVER:
 
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The Law Of Circularity

WILL JESUS TORTURE BILLIONS FOREVER?

Our Lord Jesus Christ is the Creator and Sustainer of ALL things and ALL people. He either does or allows everything that is done in heaven or on earth. If one hundred billion helpless human beings are being tortured, then Jesus is doing it. Satan has brought suffering and death to the whole human race. However, if eternal torment IS TRUE, then Jesus Christ will torture forever the whole human race, except the small handful who will be saved. In one hour, in a hot searing hell, our Lord will inflict more pain and agony on each person than Satan inflicted on that person during his entire life.

Source: The Savior of the World, by J. Preston Eby
Kindgdom Bible Studies Savior of the World Series Part 1
 
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