Matthew's Olivet Discourse Extremely Troubling

fishmansf

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I am having the probably one of the biggest faith shakers of the my walk with the Lord yet with this verse. I've read so many articles about the different views of this discourse but I am not convince by any of them. To Preterists, Jesus return was in 70 A.D. and that the Abomination of Desolation (AoD) was Antiochus Epiphanes, the warning to the Christians to flee to the mountains as an early warning sign to flee the judgement to come on Jerusalem and whatnot rather than Jesus' final coming in which no one will be able to flee. On the surface, it seems to make sense right? Nero/Antiochus, as the Anti-Christ and the AoD, the ability to avoid this catastrophe, the coming of phony Messiahs, and "no stone left atop another". But then I look at verse 29 where Jesus says that IMMEDIATELY after the tribulation, that He will be seen coming on the clouds and that the whole EARTH will mourn and He will gather all of His saints from the corners of the WORLD, not Judea. And then he says that this generation will not pass away until these things happen! First, I've heard the Preterist argument that verse 29-31 is figurative taken from Daniel 7, Isaiah 13, and Ezekiel but the fact that he says that he will gather his elect from all corners of the earth seems to be unarguably literal as I also have heard that meaning "to preach the gospel" to all corners of the earth which frankly, I want to buy but I don't. Even the following verses about no one knowing the day or hour except the Father and the FINAL judgement throws me in for a loop! Goodness gracious this is troubling me. I can't believe that this verse can mean that Jesus return was at 70 A.D. but I also can't believe that He hasn't already returned in 70 A.D.! Please, those of you who have wrestled with the verse but have been given understanding by God, shed your light on this! I've been praying that God would give me a sufficient answer but none have been shown to me yet.
 

royal priest

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I am having the probably one of the biggest faith shakers of the my walk with the Lord yet with this verse. I've read so many articles about the different views of this discourse but I am not convince by any of them. To Preterists, Jesus return was in 70 A.D. and that the Abomination of Desolation (AoD) was Antiochus Epiphanes, the warning to the Christians to flee to the mountains as an early warning sign to flee the judgement to come on Jerusalem and whatnot rather than Jesus' final coming in which no one will be able to flee. On the surface, it seems to make sense right? Nero/Antiochus, as the Anti-Christ and the AoD, the ability to avoid this catastrophe, the coming of phony Messiahs, and "no stone left atop another". But then I look at verse 29 where Jesus says that IMMEDIATELY after the tribulation, that He will be seen coming on the clouds and that the whole EARTH will mourn and He will gather all of His saints from the corners of the WORLD, not Judea. And then he says that this generation will not pass away until these things happen! First, I've heard the Preterist argument that verse 29-31 is figurative taken from Daniel 7, Isaiah 13, and Ezekiel but the fact that he says that he will gather his elect from all corners of the earth seems to be unarguably literal as I also have heard that meaning "to preach the gospel" to all corners of the earth which frankly, I want to buy but I don't. Even the following verses about no one knowing the day or hour except the Father and the FINAL judgement throws me in for a loop! Goodness gracious this is troubling me. I can't believe that this verse can mean that Jesus return was at 70 A.D. but I also can't believe that He hasn't already returned in 70 A.D.! Please, those of you who have wrestled with the verse but have been given understanding by God, shed your light on this! I've been praying that God would give me a sufficient answer but none have been shown to me yet.
Nearly every prophecy has a two-fold fulfilment: an immediate and a future.
This is especially the case with regard to the execution of God's judgement.
 
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HTacianas

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I am having the probably one of the biggest faith shakers of the my walk with the Lord yet with this verse. I've read so many articles about the different views of this discourse but I am not convince by any of them. To Preterists, Jesus return was in 70 A.D. and that the Abomination of Desolation (AoD) was Antiochus Epiphanes, the warning to the Christians to flee to the mountains as an early warning sign to flee the judgement to come on Jerusalem and whatnot rather than Jesus' final coming in which no one will be able to flee. On the surface, it seems to make sense right? Nero/Antiochus, as the Anti-Christ and the AoD, the ability to avoid this catastrophe, the coming of phony Messiahs, and "no stone left atop another". But then I look at verse 29 where Jesus says that IMMEDIATELY after the tribulation, that He will be seen coming on the clouds and that the whole EARTH will mourn and He will gather all of His saints from the corners of the WORLD, not Judea. And then he says that this generation will not pass away until these things happen! First, I've heard the Preterist argument that verse 29-31 is figurative taken from Daniel 7, Isaiah 13, and Ezekiel but the fact that he says that he will gather his elect from all corners of the earth seems to be unarguably literal as I also have heard that meaning "to preach the gospel" to all corners of the earth which frankly, I want to buy but I don't. Even the following verses about no one knowing the day or hour except the Father and the FINAL judgement throws me in for a loop! Goodness gracious this is troubling me. I can't believe that this verse can mean that Jesus return was at 70 A.D. but I also can't believe that He hasn't already returned in 70 A.D.! Please, those of you who have wrestled with the verse but have been given understanding by God, shed your light on this! I've been praying that God would give me a sufficient answer but none have been shown to me yet.

I believe that the Olivet discourse was fulfilled in 70 AD. I also have some opinions on it that are not Orthodox on the surface, but in light of the history of the Church they are de facto Orthodox. But something to ponder based on what you said above:

Mat 24:31 - And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.

Notice he said "he shall send...and they shall gather". He does not say his messengers will go out to gather and return with his elect, but only that they are sent to gather.
 
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DavidPT

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but I also can't believe that He hasn't already returned in 70 A.D.!

Returned when in 70 AD? During those events? If one takes the tribulation of those days to be meaning 70 AD, then no way, according to the text, could Jesus have come in 70 AD to begin with. Clearly the coming in Matthew 24:30 is meaning AFTER the tribulation of those days. After or during when the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:

And assuming the tribulation of those days involved 70 AD, no coming of Christ whatsoever happened during those days if Matthew 24:29 is clearly telling us that the coming is meaning after those days. What coming of Christ would have had any significance after the events in 70 AD in the first century? None. So they are not even being logical to begin with since this coming is after the trib of those days, and not during it instead.
 
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I am having the probably one of the biggest faith shakers of the my walk with the Lord yet with this verse. I've read so many articles about the different views of this discourse but I am not convince by any of them. To Preterists, Jesus return was in 70 A.D. and that the Abomination of Desolation (AoD) was Antiochus Epiphanes, the warning to the Christians to flee to the mountains as an early warning sign to flee the judgement to come on Jerusalem and whatnot rather than Jesus' final coming in which no one will be able to flee. On the surface, it seems to make sense right? Nero/Antiochus, as the Anti-Christ and the AoD, the ability to avoid this catastrophe, the coming of phony Messiahs, and "no stone left atop another". But then I look at verse 29 where Jesus says that IMMEDIATELY after the tribulation, that He will be seen coming on the clouds and that the whole EARTH will mourn and He will gather all of His saints from the corners of the WORLD, not Judea. And then he says that this generation will not pass away until these things happen! First, I've heard the Preterist argument that verse 29-31 is figurative taken from Daniel 7, Isaiah 13, and Ezekiel but the fact that he says that he will gather his elect from all corners of the earth seems to be unarguably literal as I also have heard that meaning "to preach the gospel" to all corners of the earth which frankly, I want to buy but I don't. Even the following verses about no one knowing the day or hour except the Father and the FINAL judgement throws me in for a loop! Goodness gracious this is troubling me. I can't believe that this verse can mean that Jesus return was at 70 A.D. but I also can't believe that He hasn't already returned in 70 A.D.! Please, those of you who have wrestled with the verse but have been given understanding by God, shed your light on this! I've been praying that God would give me a sufficient answer but none have been shown to me yet.
There is a good message on Youtube by Dave Hunt. His message is on prophecy and the end times and is very informative. John MacArthur also gives messages on end time events and he puts things into perspective as well. Viewing these videos would answer most if not all your questions.

If you are expecting God to speak to you about it in a direct voice to your mind, don't hold your breath! He has already spoken through good Bible teachers and excellent commentaries.

Jesus didn't come in AD70. His prophecies in Matthew were to the unconverted Jews, warning them of the impending destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple. When the Roman armies were sighted in the distance, The Apostle John gathered all the Christian believers in Jerusalem and led them right away from the region, out of the reach of the approaching Roman armies. He was following the instruction of Jesus to flee to the mountains without delay.

But there were certain world events that needed to happen before the second coming of Christ. Firstly, the Jews would return Israel. This happened in 1948. Secondly, the gospel would have to be spread right throughout the world, which is still being completed today. There are many areas of the world that have not heard the gospel. Also, we are seeing world developments that are bringing economies, governments, and religions closer to a world-wide system. We are also seeing a vast increase of earthquakes, storms, diseases, etc., which were also prophesied would happen as the end approaches.

If you look carefully at the 1 and 2 Thessalonian verses, you will see that there will be a time when the dead in Christ will rise first, then those who are alive will be caught up to meet the Lord in the air. This is not the second coming of Christ.

The next step in the time-line will be the emergence of the Anti-Christ who will set up the one-world government, and then gather all the armies of the world to attack and destroy Israel. It is interesting that Islam believes that none of their number will be resurrected on the last day until every single Jew in the world is killed. So, to complete the purpose of the Anti-Christ, Israel has to be destroyed, and if it is, Satan has won, because Jesus will not be able to come again to an Israel that no longer exists.

It is interesting that when Jesus actually comes again in person, He will come with all His saints. These are the ones who rose and were caught up with Him in the air. While the Anti-Christ is doing his thing, there will be the judgment seat of Christ where believers will be rewarded, and then there will be the marriage supper of the lamb.

Then, the Anti-Christ and all the armies of the world will attack Israel, and then Jesus will come in person with His whole multitude of His saints, defeat the Anti-Christ and set up His kingdom in Israel. The remnant of faithful Jews will convert to Christ and join the rest of the saints.

Then at some stage, the earth and the heavens will be completely destroyed and replaced with new heavens and earth.

So it is important to put all the reference to end time events into their right order. The book of Revelation deals with past, present, and future at the same time, so it is misleading to try and put that book into chronological order.

So, the instruction to believers is to "occupy until I come". This means that we get on with doing what God has called us to do in our area of endeavour. The next event in the believers' timeline will be that we will either rise from the dead or if alive, will be caught up to meet the Lord in the air. What the world will experience will be millions of people going suddenly missing and empty graves right around the world. This will cause great fear and chaos, and the Anti-Christ will emerge and step in to restore stability and peace back into the world. This will be an extension of the prophecy, "peace, peace, when there is no peace." Then the people of the world will resume their normal lives, not knowing that Jesus will return in person when they will least expect it.

There will be those who will argue against what I have said, but view the messages by Dave Hunt and John MacArthur and make up your own mind about it.
 
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Josheb

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Hi fishermansf,

Great comments and inquiries. Can we first maybe consider some basic exegetical precepts before we begin debating viable interpretations? For example,

Can you and I agree whatever was intended to be communicated it was intended to be understood in whole or part by the first century audience to whom Jesus was originally speaking?

Can we agree that the first best place to go to understand what Jesus is saying, especially anything that is a figure of speech, is scripture (scripture rendering scripture)?

Can we also agree that the genre or literary category of gospel and other books of the Bible is important to correctly understand befire beginning to interpret?

Can we agree that scripture is authoritative. In this particular case, scripture is authoritative over history and not the other way around? In other words, can we agree that only after we have correctly understood scripture can we apply it to what we know of any subsequently occurring history?​

Let's start with those four basics. Can you see the veracity and efficacy of those practices?




And, btw, Antiochus Epiphanes is not the best or most likely identification for the AoD. After we've agreed to some basic exegetical principles I'll provide an explanation where the AoD isn't a person, but a state or condition that existed during the 70 a.d. period that is easily grasped as such.
 
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Josheb

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There is a good message on Youtube by Dave Hunt.
I disagree. There are no good eschatological messages by David Hunt because he did not practice the Dipsensationalist hermeneutic despite claiming to subscribe to such. No Dispensational Premillennialist (DP) does. We see this in the fact they say prophesy must be read literally but they ignore the literal reading of "this generation" and "the is near." They don't practice a literal reading when the scriptures say a third of the stars will fall or the sun and moon will cease giving off their light. They interpret things literally when they want to do so (selectively), and the rest is read literalistically, not literally. They try to get around this by saying, "There will be a literal fulfillment of all prophesy," but everyone believes that. That is not the same thing as saying prophesy must be read literally. Teachers who don't practice their own hermeneutic are not good teachers and they do not provide good mesages.
 
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eleos1954

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I am having the probably one of the biggest faith shakers of the my walk with the Lord yet with this verse. I've read so many articles about the different views of this discourse but I am not convince by any of them. To Preterists, Jesus return was in 70 A.D. and that the Abomination of Desolation (AoD) was Antiochus Epiphanes, the warning to the Christians to flee to the mountains as an early warning sign to flee the judgement to come on Jerusalem and whatnot rather than Jesus' final coming in which no one will be able to flee. On the surface, it seems to make sense right? Nero/Antiochus, as the Anti-Christ and the AoD, the ability to avoid this catastrophe, the coming of phony Messiahs, and "no stone left atop another". But then I look at verse 29 where Jesus says that IMMEDIATELY after the tribulation, that He will be seen coming on the clouds and that the whole EARTH will mourn and He will gather all of His saints from the corners of the WORLD, not Judea. And then he says that this generation will not pass away until these things happen! First, I've heard the Preterist argument that verse 29-31 is figurative taken from Daniel 7, Isaiah 13, and Ezekiel but the fact that he says that he will gather his elect from all corners of the earth seems to be unarguably literal as I also have heard that meaning "to preach the gospel" to all corners of the earth which frankly, I want to buy but I don't. Even the following verses about no one knowing the day or hour except the Father and the FINAL judgement throws me in for a loop! Goodness gracious this is troubling me. I can't believe that this verse can mean that Jesus return was at 70 A.D. but I also can't believe that He hasn't already returned in 70 A.D.! Please, those of you who have wrestled with the verse but have been given understanding by God, shed your light on this! I've been praying that God would give me a sufficient answer but none have been shown to me yet.

The disciples bring up discussion about the current temple. In regard to this in
Matthew 24 verses 1-2 Jesus prophesies about the temple being destroyed ... and it was destroyed in 70 AD

a pretty interesting and detailed read about that here:
Chronology of the War According to Josephus: Part 7, The Fall of Jerusalem

the "this generation" was in reference to this "event" ... the destruction of the temple.

A generation in the Bible is 40 years (Numbers 32:13). Jesus made this prophecy in AD 31, and by AD 70 it was fulfilled! The temple was destroyed ... not one stone laying upon another.

Matthew 24

3While Jesus was sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to Him privately. “Tell us,” they said, “when will these things happen, and what will be the sign of Your coming and of the end of the age?”

Verses 3 and onward Jesus then gives prophesy into the future (leading into end time events/signs - and as also prophesied by Daniel) addressing their question of signs of His coming and of the end of the age. With the end of the age being that of His return.

Jesus describes to the disciples both the destruction of Jerusalem and events/signs up to the end of the world, but the "this generation" will not pass away was in regard to destruction of the temple/Jerusalem, commonly referred to as the Siege of Jerusalem.

Is my understanding anyways ;o)
 
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I disagree. There are no good eschatological messages by David Hunt because he did not practice the Dipsensationalist hermeneutic despite claiming to subscribe to such. No Dispensational Premillennialist (DP) does. We see this in the fact they say prophesy must be read literally but they ignore the literal reading of "this generation" and "the is near." They don't practice a literal reading when the scriptures say a third of the stars will fall or the sun and moon will cease giving off their light. They interpret things literally when they want to do so (selectively), and the rest is read literalistically, not literally. They try to get around this by saying, "There will be a literal fulfillment of all prophesy," but everyone believes that. That is not the same thing as saying prophesy must be read literally. Teachers who don't practice their own hermeneutic are not good teachers and they do not provide good mesages.
I can't debate your comments on this thread out of respect for the green label with the heading, because I am not a dispensationist. All I have written is just the facts that I know from my reading of the different references to end time events.
 
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Josheb

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I can't debate your comments on this thread out of respect for the green label with the heading, because I am not a dispensationist. All I have written is just the facts that I know from my reading of the different references to end time events.
I'm red-green colorblind. What's the green label with the heading say? Bibliology & Hermeneutics?
 
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DavidPT

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the "this generation" was in reference to this "event" ... the destruction of the temple.


No it wasn't. That would be out of context if it was. The context that was said in had zero to do with events in the first century. The context it was stated in, instead had to do with events surrounding the 2nd coming in the end of this age.
 
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royal priest

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No it wasn't. That would be out of context if it was. The context that was said in had zero to do with events in the first century. The context it was stated in, instead had to do with events surrounding the 2nd coming in the end of this age.
Daniel points to this event in Daniel 9:26,
And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

Jesus makes indirect reference to it in Luke 19:41-44,
And when He was come near, He beheld the city, and wept over it, Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things which belong unto thy peace! but now they are hid from thine eyes. For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side, And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; BECAUSE THOU KNEW NOT THE TIME OF THY VISITATION
 
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DavidPT

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Daniel points to this event in Daniel 9:26,
And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.

Jesus makes indirect reference to it in Luke 19:41-44,
And when He was come near, He beheld the city, and wept over it, Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things which belong unto thy peace! but now they are hid from thine eyes. For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side, And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; BECAUSE THOU KNEW NOT THE TIME OF THY VISITATION


I'm not saying Jesus didn't predict the destruction of the temple in 70 AD in the Discourse. I'm saying that the context involving this generation was not said within first century context, but was said within 2nd coming in the end of this age context. For the part about this generation, if meaning the first century and 70 AD, that would be out of context with everything else Jesus was speaking about at that particular time in the Discourse.
 
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I'm red-green colorblind. What's the green label with the heading say? Bibliology & Hermeneutics?
My apologies. I mistook which thread I was responding to. Right. I can debate on this thread.
I disagree. There are no good eschatological messages by David Hunt because he did not practice the Dipsensationalist hermeneutic despite claiming to subscribe to such. No Dispensational Premillennialist (DP) does. We see this in the fact they say prophesy must be read literally but they ignore the literal reading of "this generation" and "the is near." They don't practice a literal reading when the scriptures say a third of the stars will fall or the sun and moon will cease giving off their light. They interpret things literally when they want to do so (selectively), and the rest is read literalistically, not literally. They try to get around this by saying, "There will be a literal fulfillment of all prophesy," but everyone believes that. That is not the same thing as saying prophesy must be read literally. Teachers who don't practice their own hermeneutic are not good teachers and they do not provide good mesages.
I notice that you are not accusing John MacArthur of doing the same thing. He is teaching exactly the same as Dave Hunt. It is one thing to expound what the Bible actually says, and quite another to shoe-horn the Bible into one's preconceived dispensational theology. In actual fact, dispensationism is an invention of man and not something that the Bible teaches. Therefore the expression "this generation" from Jesus could quite easily mean the unconverted Jews of His time. It could also mean the church age which goes from the Day of Pentecost until the second coming of Christ.
 
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Josheb

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My apologies. I mistook which thread I was responding to. Right. I can debate on this thread.

I notice that you are not accusing John MacArthur of doing the same thing. He is teaching exactly the same as Dave Hunt. It is one thing to expound what the Bible actually says, and quite another to shoe-horn the Bible into one's preconceived dispensational theology.
Your noticing my silence is irrelevant. I have problems with MacArthur, too. One fool at a time.
In actual fact, dispensationism is an invention of man and not something that the Bible teaches.
That's not entirely true. The term "dispensation" or "economy" or "stewardsip" can in fact be found in scripture and the ECFs often wrote using "dispensation" terms. They invariably did so in relationship to God's covenants where modern-day dispies do not. Modern-day Dispensational Premillenialism is a man-made invention and one that does not well reconcile with scripture or 20 centuries of Church (ekklesia) thought, doctrine and practice
Therefore the expression "this generation" from Jesus could quite easily mean the unconverted Jews of His time.
He was speaking to Jewish converts when he spoke those words.
It could also mean the church age which goes from the Day of Pentecost until the second coming of Christ.
Nope. The conjugation is near demonstrative (look it up). It cannot be made to mean anything other than what it means. Furthermore, there are nearly a dozen examples of "this generation spoke in the gospels and every single one of them is in reference to the generation to whom Jesus is speaking. On top of that when we read of "this generation" in the OT it is always in conjunction with the coming of the Messiah..... who came, lived, died, and was resurrected in the first century.

"This generation," means "this generation to whom I am now speaking as I ad monish the scribes and Pharisees (Mt. 23) and as I sit and answer the three-pronged question put to me by my disciples and we sit across the saddle between the mountains and look down upon the temple."

Look it up.

Consider the four questions I asked the op in post #4. Do those practices make sense to you as veracious and viable?
 
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fishmansf

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Returned when in 70 AD? During those events? Clearly the coming in Matthew 24:30 is meaning AFTER the tribulation of those days..

But what about when he says "immediately" I don't understand the time frame of God but I hardly can believe that "Immediately" (which in the Greek means 'at once' or 'immediately) would be the course of 2000+ years.
 
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But what about when he says "immediately" I don't understand the time frame of God but I hardly can believe that "Immediately" (which in the Greek means 'at once' or 'immediately) would be the course of 2000+ years.


If Matthew 24:30 is the 2nd coming, but that the trib of those days are meaning the 1st century, 70 AD in this case, 2000 years later is not immedietely after 70 AD. Obviously there is a contradiction here if trying to understand it in this manner.

And since Matthew 24:30 has to be meaning the 2nd coming, regardless that Preterists disagree, this has to mean the trib of those days didn't start in the first century and end in the first century, but start in the end of this age and end in the end of this age. That way 'immediately after' is no longer making nonsense of the text since all of these events would be taking place in the end of this age, rather than some of these events taking place thousands of years ago, and some of these events happening in the end of this age.
 
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If Matthew 24:30 is the 2nd coming, but that the trib of those days are meaning the 1st century, 70 AD in this case, 2000 years later is not immedietely after 70 AD. Obviously there is a contradiction here if trying to understand it in this manner.

And since Matthew 24:30 has to be meaning the 2nd coming, regardless that Preterists disagree, this has to mean the trib of those days didn't start in the first century and end in the first century, but start in the end of this age and end in the end of this age. That way 'immediately after' is no longer making nonsense of the text since all of these events would be taking place in the end of this age, rather than some of these events taking place thousands of years ago, and some of these events happening in the end of this age.

So what youre saying is that those signs that Jesus spoke of began in 70 AD and have continued on until now until he comes back so that Immediately is once the Gospel is preached to the whole world? If that is the case I sort of can see what youre talking about. If youre saying that the ending age has not yet come then how come all of the signs except for the whole earth hearing the gospel has been fulfilled?
 
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Presbyterian Continuist

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So what youre saying is that those signs that Jesus spoke of began in 70 AD and have continued on until now until he comes back so that Immediately is once the Gospel is preached to the whole world? If that is the case I sort of can see what youre talking about. If youre saying that the ending age has not yet come then how come all of the signs except for the whole earth hearing the gospel has been fulfilled?
Daniel 12:4 says something very interesting:
"But as for you, Daniel, conceal these words and seal up the book until the end of time; many will go back and forth, and knowledge will increase."
There has been an explosion of knowledge in the last 150 years. It has only been in the last 50 years that air travel has enabled many people to travel back and forth around the whole world. Before then, the prophecy has not been as clearly fulfilled. Also, there was a prophecy that the Jews scattered throughout the whole world will return to their own land. This happened in 1948 when Israel became a sovereign state; something that had not happened since AD70. Most of the prophecies in the Bible have been fulfilled right down to the last detail, but there are some still to be fulfilled before the end comes. As surely as day follows night, those prophecies will be fulfilled to the last detail, and then the end will come.
 
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fishmansf

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Daniel 12:4 says something very interesting:
"But as for you, Daniel, conceal these words and seal up the book until the end of time; many will go back and forth, and knowledge will increase."
There has been an explosion of knowledge in the last 150 years. It has only been in the last 50 years that air travel has enabled many people to travel back and forth around the whole world. Before then, the prophecy has not been as clearly fulfilled. Also, there was a prophecy that the Jews scattered throughout the whole world will return to their own land. This happened in 1948 when Israel became a sovereign state; something that had not happened since AD70. Most of the prophecies in the Bible have been fulfilled right down to the last detail, but there are some still to be fulfilled before the end comes. As surely as day follows night, those prophecies will be fulfilled to the last detail, and then the end will come.

But then what’s still tripping me up now is that Jesus says “this generation shall not pass away until all of these things have take place”. How do we harmonize that? Is it saying that all of the “woes” if you will, will take place in that first century, but then it won’t happen until the gospel has been preached to the whole world
 
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