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But the word ἁρπαγμον, which we translate "robbery," has been supposed to imply a thing eagerly to be seized, or desired; and on this interpretation the passage has been translated: Who, being in the form of God, did not think it a matter to be earnestly desired to appear equal to God; but made himself of no reputation, etc. However, it does not affect the eternal Deity of our Lord.
I guess you know by now that I, myself, am on the side that believes Christ was all-knowing, and knew the end from the beginning. I mean really, He pretty much told us everything that was going to occur and gave us the signs to look for when they would occur. Even the Devils knew he knew the time.
Matthew 8:29
John 8:58
As for your related question, the very literal meaning of the word is indeed "emptied," but the real or pertinent question is, what is the word conveying in this context of Philippians chapter 2. Personally, I think a lot of theologians over the years have tried too hard to deconstruct and even deny the word in a well-meaning attempt to preserve the doctrine of the deity of Christ. But that doctrine does not stand or fall on this verse, and it generally ends up just confusing the whole issue. The Bible really has its own system, it is its own interpreter, and often t is its own dictionary. In this case, I believe that the meaning becomes "obvious" from the context, when we consider it circumspectly. Consider the key parts of these passages that I've highlighted:
Philippians 2:6-8
1st John 4:12
For the record, the King James translators originally translated it emptied, but changed it to "of no reputation" because they felt translating it empty might (and indeed did) cause some to come to erroneous conclusions regarding Christ's deity. While the "of no reputation" translation might not be the perfect rendering, it's not really a bad translation because made Himself "of no reputation" expresses the lowering of God to take on the form of a man. And anyone who actually knows about translating from one language to language (regardless of the language) is aware that often words, idioms, metaphors and figurative language are not always meant to be rendered literally. However, unlike some (B. B. Warfield and others), I would not o so far as to claim that the translation "emptied himself" is a mistranslation. It definitely can be confusing, but it is not in my humble opinion, a mistranslation.
I guess you know by now that I, myself, am on the side that believes Christ was all-knowing, and knew the end from the beginning. I mean really, He pretty much told us everything that was going to occur and gave us the signs to look for when they would occur. Even the Devils knew he knew the time.
Matthew 8:29
- "And, behold, they cried out, saying, What have we to do with thee, Jesus, thou Son of God? art thou come hither to torment us before the time?"
John 8:58
- "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I AM."
As for your related question, the very literal meaning of the word is indeed "emptied," but the real or pertinent question is, what is the word conveying in this context of Philippians chapter 2. Personally, I think a lot of theologians over the years have tried too hard to deconstruct and even deny the word in a well-meaning attempt to preserve the doctrine of the deity of Christ. But that doctrine does not stand or fall on this verse, and it generally ends up just confusing the whole issue. The Bible really has its own system, it is its own interpreter, and often t is its own dictionary. In this case, I believe that the meaning becomes "obvious" from the context, when we consider it circumspectly. Consider the key parts of these passages that I've highlighted:
Philippians 2:6-8
- "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
- But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
- And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross."
1st John 4:12
- "No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us."
For the record, the King James translators originally translated it emptied, but changed it to "of no reputation" because they felt translating it empty might (and indeed did) cause some to come to erroneous conclusions regarding Christ's deity. While the "of no reputation" translation might not be the perfect rendering, it's not really a bad translation because made Himself "of no reputation" expresses the lowering of God to take on the form of a man. And anyone who actually knows about translating from one language to language (regardless of the language) is aware that often words, idioms, metaphors and figurative language are not always meant to be rendered literally. However, unlike some (B. B. Warfield and others), I would not o so far as to claim that the translation "emptied himself" is a mistranslation. It definitely can be confusing, but it is not in my humble opinion, a mistranslation.
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