Ok. But doesn't answer my question.Sorry man, you will never make fundamentalism look remotely appealing to me by trying to appeal to skepticism.
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Ok. But doesn't answer my question.Sorry man, you will never make fundamentalism look remotely appealing to me by trying to appeal to skepticism.
The author of that apologetics site is wrong. He is basically saying "even though they state what they do, it just can't be true." Which amounts to a giant "ah nah."
Within the context of the texts provided Chyrsostom clearly interpreted the Pauline epistles properly to conclude we are justified by faith alone. You can dig up other works of Chrysostom to show his emphasis that Christians are called to holy living and good works and that would not be a contradiction. In fact that would be in keeping with Pauline doctrine:
Ephesians 2:8-10
For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast. For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them.
What I think is being suggested by Roman Catholics is that the only Grace which is not given by our merits is the forgiveness of sins. Which of course St Augustine refuted:
When, however, the Pelagians say that the only grace which is not given according to our merits is that whereby his sins are forgiven to man, but that that which is given in the end, that is, eternal life, is rendered to our preceding merits: they must not be allowed to go without an answer. If, indeed, they so understand our merits as to acknowledge them, too, to be the gifts of God, then their opinion would not deserve reprobation. But inasmuch as they so preach human merits as to declare that a man has them of his own self, then most rightly the apostle replies: Who makes you to differ from another? And what have you, that you did not receive? Now, if you received it, why do you glory as if you had not received it? 1 Corinthians 4:7 To a man who holds such views, it is perfect truth to say: It is His own gifts that God crowns, not your merits, — if, at least, your merits are of your own self, not of Him. If, indeed, they are such, they are evil; and God does not crown them; but if they are good, they are God's gifts, because, as the Apostle James says, Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and comes down from the Father of lights.James 1:17 In accordance with which John also, the Lord's forerunner, declares: A man can receive nothing except it be given him from heaven John 3:27 — from heaven, of course, because from thence came also the Holy Ghost, when Jesus ascended up on high, led captivity captive, and gave gifts to men. If, then, your good merits are God's gifts, God does not crown your merits as your merits, but as His own gifts. (Augustine, On Grace and Free Will Ch. 15)
CHURCH FATHERS: On Grace and Free Will (St. Augustine)
That's cool.
I guess metaphor while a double edged sword, is not all bad. It permits us to reinterpret texts that are no longer relevant in their more literal sense. At one time, an origins story about a naughty snake was relevant to peoples lives (its interesting that interpretation persists into the liturgy of St. John Chrysostom, where the serpent, not Satan, is mentioned as the cause of the fall). Then we see spiritual meaning in it. But we lose sight that other people do the same with other story's imagery, and they are no less powerful for doing so.
Amen. The whole deal is really much more simple than most make it. Believe and obey, or not. End of story.In Hebrew, faith is an action word. It’s not just a mental agreement of a fact.
If you trust in Christ & God, you will do what they say to do. If you don’t trust them, you won’t do it. Simple as that.
Ok. But doesn't answer my question.
Not actually true. The repentant robber below gained Paradise solely through faith/trust/belief alone, ie without doing any good work.
You said:....... Actually, doing the works of God's Law also requires faith/trust/belief in the Word/Jesus, eg "we reap what we sow" or "Go and sin no more lest a worse thing come upon you".(GALATIANS.6:7, JOHN.5:14/8:11, DEUT.28, ROMANS.2)
You said:The exemptions at ACTS.15:24-29 apply to Gentile Christians wrt the Law.(cf; 1COR.6:9-11 & REV.22:12-15) Do ye believe this.?
You said:LUKE.23: = 39 Then one of the criminals who were hanged blasphemed Him, saying, “If You are the Christ, save Yourself and us.”
40 But the other, answering, rebuked him, saying, “Do you not even fear God, seeing you are under the same condemnation? 41 And we indeed justly, for we receive the due reward of our deeds; but this Man has done nothing wrong.” 42 Then he said to Jesus, “Lord, remember me when You come into Your kingdom.”
43 And Jesus said to him, “Assuredly, I say to you, today you will be with Me in Paradise.”
No, that is not what the author of the site said.The author of that apologetics site is wrong. He is basically saying "even though they state what they do, it just can't be true." Which amounts to a giant "ah nah."
Within the context of the texts provided Chyrsostom clearly interpreted the Pauline epistles properly to conclude we are justified by faith alone. You can dig up other works of Chrysostom to show his emphasis that Christians are called to holy living and good works and that would not be a contradiction. In fact that would be in keeping with Pauline doctrine:
Ephesians 2:8-10
For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast. For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them.
No, you cannot produce one single official Catholic document that teaches that.What I think is being suggested by Roman Catholics is that the only Grace which is not given by our merits is the forgiveness of sins.
Well of course they did. When they saw a snake in the dust of the ground flicking its tongue they truly knew the serpent was "eating dust."But ancient people understood that Genesis story of the snake literally.
I have always been taught growing up that we are justified before God by faith alone, and not works. However, the more I read James 2, the more I believe the Catholic Church is correct in its soteriology as opposed to Anglican/Lutheran soteriology.
James 2:21 following:
21 Was not our father Abraham considered righteous for what he did when he offered his son Isaac on the altar? 22 You see that his faith and his actions were working together, and his faith was made complete by what he did. 23 And the scripture was fulfilled that says, “Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness,”[e] and he was called God’s friend.24 You see that a person is considered righteous by what they do and not by faith alone.
It literally says "...considered righteous by what they (you) do and not by faith alone".
I've heard that this passage refers to how the Church can tell if one has genuine faith, as opposed to faith/justification before God. Where is this distinction found in the text? It seems that you have to read more into the text than is there to arrive at that conclusion.
Here's a second, even more clear translation:
James 2:24: Ye see that by works a man is justified, and not only by faith.
Faith alone is English for Sola Fide. Semantics does not work here.You seem think that because Chrysostom uses the term "faith alone" in the context of justification, that he must teach Protestant Sola Fide, but this is error because the use of the phrase "faith alone" in every context does not equate to the Protestant Doctrine of Sola Fide.
You mean properly understood via Roman Catholic doctrinal development. Again even semantics is no help here. Saying we are justified by faith alone and then post after post a Roman Catholic says....but James chapter two...Even Pope Benedict has stated that we are justified by faith alone, if the phrase is properly understood, and that a Catholic may say that we are justified by faith alone, if properly understood.
The same declaration which agrees there really wasn't a papacy until hundreds of years later?The same thing is stated in the Joint Declaration on the Doctrine of Justificatio
I believe I pointed out three times where this is actually the case.When you see Chrysostom use the phrase "faith alone" you conclude that he is teaching the same thing as Martin Luther, but that is simply not the case.
Actually those who cry out Lord Lord debate appealing to what they did.Many Protestants claim that we are saved by faith in Jesus and that only the extent of our reward in Heaven is determined by the amount of our good works on Earth. However, this is totally contrary to what Jesus warned in Matthew when he said that many who call him "Lord" will NOT make it to Heaven! I think that Protestantism needs to place less emphasis upon the words of Paul and more credence upon words of Jesus in the Gospels.
Considering Paul was speaking to Gentiles I think you are incorrect.In context, the "works" here are the works of the Law of Moses. And only Jews could do those works. The author here is telling us being Jewish (doing the works of the Law of Moses) is not salvific. So the author here is not denying that how one lives does not affect salvation.
Ancient texts (e.g. the Descent of Ishtar), sometimes depict serpents as inhabitants of the underworld that feed on dust and clay (so there was definitely mythology involved with snakes back then). But I doubt that few living off the land in an agrarian society would ever think that dust/dirt was the actual food of snakes (it's not like they had to go to the reptile house at the zoo to see them, and that from a distance, because in a very real sense, they lived with them and at least knew they ate more than dust).But ancient people understood that Genesis story of the snake literally. Christians today just read it allegorically, because the literal meaning is absurd. Which is my point. Religion is a game of trying to make sense of a bunch of old myths. Maybe God speaks to us through that, but let's keep it real what we are reading.
Imagine a world where nobody really pays attention to snakes because they are scary, it's pre-scientific. They could indeed believe that snakes ate dust. Aristotle taught that kind of nonsense.
BTw, "licking the dust" probably refers to misunderstanding of how snakes smell. They use their tongue and the have specialized organs in their mouth for doing that, drawing in molecules from the air. Snakes are not evil instruments of satan, but are wonderfully made organisms that are part of the web of life that sustains us. We didn't get that from the Bible, we got that from science.
And might I add how did we get into snakes eating dust in a justification by faith discussion?Ancient texts (e.g. the Descent of Ishtar), sometimes depict serpents as inhabitants of the underworld that feed on dust and clay (so there was definitely mythology involved with snakes back then). But I doubt that few living off the land in an agrarian society would ever think that dust/dirt was the actual food of snakes (it's not like they had to go to the reptile house at the zoo to see them, and that from a distance, because in a very real sense, they lived with them and at least knew they ate more than dust).
*(that bit about Aristotle above .. weird!!)
Also, from what I understand, snakes use their forked tongues to draw more than air molecules in to be analyzed by their Jacobson organ, they sample everything around them (including rocks, plants, dirt, dust, etc. .. and your hand if you put it in front of them ), so while we know they don't eat dust for sustenance, it does 'look' a little like they might be eating something when they use their tongues in this way.
I could go on, but my point is, there's no reason to dismiss the Torah as untrue or as a myth over a small, poorly exegeted portion of the Creation narrative. Genesis 3 wasn't written in the manner of (or with the factual precision of) a science textbook, nor was its purpose to discourse the dining habits of snakes*
Yours and His,
David
*(I know you know this as well, so what is all this really about, if you don't mind me asking?)
Well said. I do ask the very same question often and never get an answer.So how much work or which work does it take to save a person?
How does a person know he's done enough to get him over the bar?
Do bad deeds subtract from good deeds?
I've heard that this passage refers to how the Church can tell if one has genuine faith, as opposed to faith/justification before God. Where is this distinction found in the text? It seems that you have to read more into the text than is there to arrive at that conclusion.
Scripture speaks of scales of rewards and punishments for our actions in this age. But the judgment for salvation or damnation does not depend on our actions, but our heart.The only religion I know of with scales of justice on judgment day is Islam.
Many Protestants claim that we are saved by faith in Jesus and that only the extent of our reward in Heaven is determined by the amount of our good works on Earth. However, this is totally contrary to what Jesus warned in Matthew when he said that many who call him "Lord" will NOT make it to Heaven! I think that Protestantism needs to place less emphasis upon the words of Paul and more credence upon words of Jesus in the Gospels.
I have always been taught growing up that we are justified before God by faith alone, and not works. However, the more I read James 2, the more I believe the Catholic Church is correct in its soteriology as opposed to Anglican/Lutheran soteriology.
James 2:21 following:
21 Was not our father Abraham considered righteous for what he did when he offered his son Isaac on the altar? 22 You see that his faith and his actions were working together, and his faith was made complete by what he did. 23 And the scripture was fulfilled that says, “Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness,”[e] and he was called God’s friend.24 You see that a person is considered righteous by what they do and not by faith alone.
It literally says "...considered righteous by what they (you) do and not by faith alone".
I've heard that this passage refers to how the Church can tell if one has genuine faith, as opposed to faith/justification before God. Where is this distinction found in the text? It seems that you have to read more into the text than is there to arrive at that conclusion.
Here's a second, even more clear translation:
James 2:24: Ye see that by works a man is justified, and not only by faith.