Does Israel get taken over again?

Biblewriter

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We historicists do err occasionally.

Unlike futurists, we're not infallible.

We also err occasionally, and when I am convinced that I did, I admit it. But the scriptures never err. That is why I am so absolute about whatever the scriptures explicitly say.
 
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Biblewriter

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Wikipedia:

Francisco Ribera (1537–1591) was a Spanish Jesuit theologian, identified with the Futurist Christian eschatological view.

It's not a falsehood. And yes, it does have an ugly head.
But, as I have already repeatedly and conclusively proved, Francisco Ribera was not the source of fututrism. The hard truth is that he simply revived the doctrine clearly spelled out by Irenaeus in his famous work titled "Against Heresies," which is thought to have been published between the years 186 and 188 A.D., and by Hippolytus in his works "Treatise on Christ and Antichrist," and "Commentary on the Prophet Daniel," both of which date from the early third century.

But here we find another case of sloppy historical research. For Ribera was not even the first of his own time to teach futurism. Theodore Beza, the famous Greek scholar, published fututistic writings in 1560, 32 years prior to the 1592 publication of Ribera's "Apocalypsin commentarij." (Which was one year after Ribera died.)

 
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Biblewriter

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Here they were:

Heruli, Suevi, Burgundians, Huns, Ostrogoths, Visigoths, Vandals, Lombards, Franks, Anglo-Saxons

What are the names of your ten kingdoms?

They have received no kingdom as yet.
 
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Bible2+

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Biblewriter said in post #192:

And, as a side note, he also listed, on page 130 of the same book, more than forty English writers on Bible prophecy who used the word “Dispensations” between the years 1538 and 1797, and on page 178, sixteen between the years 1641 and 1761, each of whom taught that the saints would be removed from the earth well before the Lord came to judge the world for its evil.

That is indeed a mistaken idea of Dispensationalism, that the rapture will be pre-tribulation, that the rapture will remove the Church from the earth, and that the entire future Tribulation will be God's judgment (against Israel and the world).

But note that nothing in the Bible teaches or requires a pre-tribulation rapture of the Church. Instead, the Bible shows that Jesus Christ won't come and gather together (rapture) the Church until immediately after the future Tribulation of Revelation chapters 6 to 18 and Matthew 24 (Matthew 24:29-31, Mark 13:24-27; 2 Thessalonians 2:1-8). That is why the marriage of the Church doesn't happen until Revelation 19:7, in connection with Jesus' Second Coming and the physical resurrection of the Church at that time (Revelation 19:7 to 20:6; 1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-53; 1 Thessalonians 4:15-16). Matthew 24:30-31 refers to the same Second Coming of Jesus and gathering together (rapture) of the Church as 2 Thessalonians 2:1, which refers to the same Second Coming of Jesus and catching up together (rapture) of the Church as 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17.

Jesus Christ won't return and gather together (rapture) the Church until sometime after there is a falling away (an apostasy) in the Church, and the future Antichrist sits (at least one time) in a 3rd Jewish temple in Jerusalem and proclaims himself God (2 Thessalonians 2:1-4, Daniel 11:31,36, Revelation 11:1-2, Revelation 13:4-8), and the abomination of desolation (possibly a standing, android image of the Antichrist) is set up in the holy place (the inner sanctum) of the 3rd Jewish temple (Matthew 24:15-31, Daniel 11:31). For when Jesus returns to gather together (and marry) the Church, He will destroy the Antichrist (2 Thessalonians 2:1,8, Revelation 19:7,20). Before Jesus returns, the Church will have to go through the future, literal 3.5 years of the Antichrist's worldwide reign (Revelation 13:5-10, Revelation 14:12-13, Revelation 20:4-6, Matthew 24:9-31).

At Jesus Christ's Second Coming (1 Thessalonians 4:15; 2 Thessalonians 2:1, Matthew 24:30), the Church will be physically resurrected and caught up together/gathered together (raptured) (1 Thessalonians 4:16-17; 2 Thessalonians 2:1, Matthew 24:31), not to remove the Church from the earth (Proverbs 10:30, John 17:15,20), but to take the Church only as high as the clouds of the sky to hold a meeting in the air with the returned Jesus (1 Thessalonians 4:17).

At that meeting, Jesus Christ will judge everyone in the Church (Psalms 50:3-5, cf. Mark 13:27) by their works (2 Corinthians 5:10, Romans 2:6-8, Luke 12:45-48, Matthew 25:19-30). And then Jesus will marry in the clouds the obedient part of the Church (Revelation 19:7-8, Matthew 25:1-12), those in the Church (of all times) who "overcame" to the end (Revelation 3:5, Revelation 2:26). They will then mount white horses and come back down from the sky (the 1st heaven) with Jesus (Revelation 19:14), as He defeats the Antichrist (the individual-man aspect of Revelation's "beast") and the world's armies (Revelation 19:15-21). Jesus will then make the marriage supper of Revelation 19:9 for the physically-resurrected and married obedient part of the Church in the earthly Jerusalem (Isaiah 25:6-9; 1 Corinthians 15:54). Jesus and the obedient part of the Church will then physically reign on the earth for 1,000 years (Revelation 20:4-6, Revelation 5:10, Revelation 2:26-29).
 
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BABerean2 said in post #193:

However, they believed that Jews would eventually be grafted back into the Olive Tree Church, through faith in Christ, as described in Romans 11.

Note that the olive tree in Romans 11 represents Israel.

For just as all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are individual branches in the vine which is Jesus Christ (John 15:5), the only way to salvation (John 14:6, Acts 4:12), so all Christians, whether Jews or Gentiles, are individual branches in the good olive tree of Israel, the Jews' own tree (Romans 11:17,24, Jeremiah 11:16-17). For all Jewish Christians remain part of Israel (Romans 11:1), as the natural branches in the tree of Israel (Romans 11:24). And all Gentile Christians have been grafted as branches from a wild olive tree into the tree of Israel (Romans 11:17,24, Ephesians 2:12,19, Galatians 3:29), so that they can partake of the salvation of the New Covenant (Matthew 26:28; 1 Corinthians 11:25; 2 Corinthians 3:6, Hebrews 9:15), which is made only with Israel (Jeremiah 31:31-34, John 4:22b). This doesn't mean that a wild branch becomes a natural branch, that a Gentile Christian becomes a genetic Jew, but means that Gentile Christians, even while remaining branches from a wild olive tree, even while remaining genetic Gentiles, are still grafted in to become part of the good olive tree of Israel (Romans 11:17,24).
 
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jgr

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But, as I have already repeatedly and conclusively proved, Francisco Ribera was not the source of fututrism. The hard truth is that he simply revived the doctrine clearly spelled out by Irenaeus in his famous work titled "Against Heresies," which is thought to have been published between the years 186 and 188 A.D., and by Hippolytus in his works "Treatise on Christ and Antichrist," and "Commentary on the Prophet Daniel," both of which date from the early third century.

But here we find another case of sloppy historical research. For Ribera was not even the first of his own time to teach futurism. Theodore Beza, the famous Greek scholar, published fututistic writings in 1560, 32 years prior to the 1592 publication of Ribera's "Apocalypsin commentarij." (Which was one year after Ribera died.)

Irenaeus and Hippolytus could not have known that virtually all of their futurism would find actual fulfillment in the relatively imminent appearance of the papacy, and its subsequent degeneration into an apostate antichrist. Over the centuries, futurism waned in response to that realization, and disappeared virtually entirely with the Reformation's complete retrospective recognition. Without Ribera, that situation would have continued to prevail in the true Christian Church, as there would have been no basis for futurism to reappear. It is not improbable that Ribera saw the potential to exploit early futurism as the basis of his own, and to achieve the papacy's objectives to counter the Reformation's effectiveness. What is certain is that without Ribera's fabrication, modern dispensational futurism would have no source of sustenance.

Theodore Beza was a Reformation disciple of John Calvin. All Reformers were historicists. I've found no evidence of Beza's "futuristic writings". What can you provide?
 
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Biblewriter

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Irenaeus and Hippolytus could not have known that virtually all of their futurism would find actual fulfillment in the relatively imminent appearance of the papacy, and its subsequent degeneration into an apostate antichrist. Over the centuries, futurism waned in response to that realization, and disappeared virtually entirely with the Reformation's complete retrospective recognition. Without Ribera, that situation would have continued to prevail in the true Christian Church, as there would have been no basis for futurism to reappear. It is not improbable that Ribera saw the potential to exploit early futurism as the basis of his own, and to achieve the papacy's objectives to counter the Reformation's effectiveness. What is certain is that without Ribera's fabrication, modern dispensational futurism would have no source of sustenance.

Theodore Beza was a Reformation disciple of John Calvin. All Reformers were historicists. I've found no evidence of Beza's "futuristic writings". What can you provide?

It is TOTALLY inaccurate to claim that virtually all of ancient futurism found its fulfillment in the Papacy. Ancient futurism was based on literal interpretation of the prophetic scriptures. And ALL other systems of eschatological interpretation are based on interpreting these same scriptures to NOT mean what they actually say.

It is also TOTALLY inaccurate to claim that without Ribera, futurism would not have reappeared. Very few of the futurist teachers even knew about Ribera's book.

As to Beza's writings, I have seen futurism in them, and am working on a development of what he actually said. That will take time.
 
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Biblewriter

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I just read over this thread for the first time. And found that an old falsehood that has already been thoroughly disproved has again risen its ugly head. This is the totally false claim, here first stated by JRG in post # 146. That “futurism” has “its roots in the Roman counter-reformation.”

This was started by a long post (#139) by JRG, listing eight writers, including one from the church’s first two centuries and two from the fourth century, and then a very long skip to the Reformers, finally ending up with just one from the nineteenth century.

To this, A71 embarrassed himself by answering in post #141 “Fantastic to see how much consensus there is JGR. Matthew Henry even recognizes that the last week of Daniel is the Roman Judean war. The Victorians really knew their bible.”

This shows how well the “historicists” study history, considering that Queen Victoria was born 105 years after Matthew Henry died.

Then, he falsehood was finalized by JRG in post #151, saying “The cited brethren unanimously conclude that the required position which is the most consistent with the available evidence is that of historical fulfillment rather than futurized fulfillment.

“These brethren represent the prevailing view of the historical true Christian Church until the 19th century.”


This could not even possibly be further from the truth.

While JRG was indeed able to find one man with at least some historicist teachings in the church’s first two centuries, and two from the fourth century, This was the minority opinion up to at least the fifth century. For in the fifth century the very famous Jerome, who wrote in the fifth century that, "We should therefore concur with the traditional interpretation of all the commentators of the Christian Church, that at the end of the world, when the Roman Empire is to be destroyed, there shall be ten kings who will partition the Roman world amongst themselves. Then an insignificant eleventh king will arise, who will overcome three of the ten kings, ..." (Jerome’s comments on Daniel 7:8, as found in “Jerome’s Commentary on Daniel,” translated by Gleason L. Archer, Jr., published by Baker Book House, Grand Rapids, 1958.)

So here we find one of the best known of the highly respected early Church writers, flatly stating in the fifth century, that futurism is “the traditional interpretation of all the commentators of the Christian Church.” This, in and by itself, is the death knell to this false claim. For according to Jerome, futurism was so universally accepted in the fifth century, that the few exceptions that existed were not even worth mentioning.

And based entirely on comments I have personally found in the works of early Church writers, I can assuredly say that:

A future millennium was clearly taught at least by Papias, Justyn Martyr, Irenaeus, Tertulian, Hyppolytus, Commodianus, Lactantius, Nepos, Apollinaris and Victorinus of Petau.

A future coming of a personal Antichrist was taught at least by the unknown writer of the “Epistle of Barnabas,” as well as by Justyn Martyr, Irenaeus, Hyppolytus, Tertullian, Commodianus, Cyprian of Carthage, John of Damascus, Cyril of Jerusalem, John of Chrysostom, Jerome, and Augustine of Hippo.

A future dissolution of the Roman Empire into ten kingdoms was taught at least by Justyn Martyr, Irenaeus, Tertullian, Hyppolytus, Victorinus, Commodianus, Lactantius, and Jerome.

God's dealing with mankind in various dispensations (yes, they used that word) was clearly taught by at least by Irenaeus, Hermas, and Ignatius.

A delayed fulfillment of Daniel's seventieth week was taught at least by the unkown writer of the so-called "Epistle of Barnabas," as well as by Irenaeus and Hyppolytus.

And William C Watson, a University Professor of seventeenth abd eighteenth century English Literature, identified more than 40 English writers between the years 1585 and 1797, who taught a future rebirth of the nation of Israel. And 26 of these wrote before the year 1700. So all of them wrote before Darby was born in 1800, and 26 of them wrote more than 100 years before he was born. (“Dispensationalism Before Darby” by William C. Watson, pg. 280.)

And, as a side note, he also listed, on page 130 of the same book, more than forty English writers on Bible prophecy who used the word “Dispensations” between the years 1538 and 1797, and on page 178, sixteen between the years 1641 and 1761, each of whom taught that the saints would be removed from the earth well before the Lord came to judge the world for its evil.
I'm not sure who JRG is but he's got it right. jgr is my handle.

All of the brethren you've cited had it right as well. It was fulfilled in the apostasy of the papacy, which was future to all of them. They could not have known how near that future was.

You can pretend that the prophetic scriptures do not actually mean what they say, and thus come up with a "fulfillment" of them in the Papacy. But you cannot do this with the preserved writings of the early Church Fathers. They very clearly taught, and insisted upon, the concept that the prophecies in the Bible mean exactly what they say.

Remember the statement by Jerome, that I quoted earlier, that "the traditional interpretation of all the commentators of the Christian Church," was "that at the end of the world, when the Roman Empire is to be destroyed, there shall be ten kings who will partition the Roman world amongst themselves. Then an insignificant eleventh king will arise, who will overcome three of the ten kings... Then after they have been slain, the seven other kings will bow their necks to the victor." (Jerome’s comments on Daniel 7:8, as found in “Jerome’s Commentary on Daniel,” pg. 77, translated by Gleason L. Archer, Jr., published by Baker Book House, Grand Rapids, 1958.

There is no rational way to even pretend that this was fulfilled in the Papacy.
 
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BABerean2

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Ancient futurism was based on literal interpretation of the prophetic scriptures. And ALL other systems of eschatological interpretation are based on interpreting these same scriptures to NOT mean what they actually say.

The Dispensational Futurist claims a literal interpretation of scripture.

However, in Daniel chapter 9 they have added an antichrist to a chapter that contains no singular antecedent for an antichrist and they have also added a "gap" of time, not mentioned by the angel Gabriel. They have ignored the period of about 7 years when the Gospel was taken first to Daniel's people, which is found in Matthew 10:5-7, and Galatians 1:14-18.

They have ignored the fact that the New Covenant was promised to Israel and Judah in Jeremiah 31:31-34, which is found fulfilled by Christ during the first century in Hebrews 8:6-13, and that Daniel was reading from the Book of Jeremiah when the angel Gabriel appeared.

And even though Christ is the New Covenant Messiah we are expected to believe that the angel Gabriel did not even mention the New Covenant.
However, the scriptural reference beside of Daniel 9:27 in my NKJV Bible is Matthew 26:28.


From the 1599 Geneva Bible, which is the Bible the Pilgrims brought to America, we find the New Covenant fulfilled at Calvary.

.........................................................................................

Dan 9:27 And he shal confirme the couenant with many for one weeke: and in the middes of the weeke he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the ouerspreading of the abominations, he shall make it desolate, euen vntill the consummation determined shalbe powred vpon the desolate.

Daniel 9:27

And he (a) shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to (b) cease, (c) and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make [it] desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

(a) By the preaching of the Gospel he affirmed his promise, first to the Jews, and after to the Gentiles.

(b) Christ accomplished this by his death and resurrection.

(c) Meaning that Jerusalem and the sanctuary would be utterly destroyed because of their rebellion against God, and their idolatry: or as some read, that the plague will be so great, that they will all be astonished at them.
.
 
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Davy

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Pretty much a bunch of malarkey:


The Dispensational Futurist claims a literal interpretation of scripture.

However, in Daniel chapter 9 they have added an antichrist to a chapter that contains no singular antecedent for an antichrist and they have also added a "gap" of time, not mentioned by the angel Gabriel. They have ignored the period of about 7 years when the Gospel was taken first to Daniel's people, which is found in Matthew 10:5-7, and Galatians 1:14-18.

They have ignored the fact that the New Covenant was promised to Israel and Judah in Jeremiah 31:31-34, which is found fulfilled by Christ during the first century in Hebrews 8:6-13, and that Daniel was reading from the Book of Jeremiah when the angel Gabriel appeared.

And even though Christ is the New Covenant Messiah we are expected to believe that the angel Gabriel did not even mention the New Covenant.
However, the scriptural reference beside of Daniel 9:27 in my NKJV Bible is Matthew 26:28.


From the 1599 Geneva Bible, which is the Bible the Pilgrims brought to America, we find the New Covenant fulfilled at Calvary.

.........................................................................................

....

Dan 9:26-27
26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.


"Messiah" is Hebrew Mashiyach (anointed, i.e., Christ in the Greek). Jesus was "cut off" by His death on the cross.


But "the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary" is about the Roman general Titus who destroyed Jerusalem and the temple in 69 A.D.

The "he" in the next verse MUST... be continued with that last pronoun of the person mentioned in verse 26, which is about Titus destroying the city and sanctuary.

27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

KJV

Therefore, that "he" cannot and is not, about our Lord Jesus. It's really simple to know that too by simply keeping to basic English grammar.

So how can Titus as that "prince" apply to the coming Antichrist which Paul warned of being revealed in Jerusalem sitting in the temple of God? That idea of a "prince" is the Hebrew word for a captain, or commander. It can just as easily apply to the coming Antichrist as a type for the end also.
 
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jgr

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It is TOTALLY inaccurate to claim that virtually all of ancient futurism found its fulfillment in the Papacy. Ancient futurism was based on literal interpretation of the prophetic scriptures. And ALL other systems of eschatological interpretation are based on interpreting these same scriptures to NOT mean what they actually say.

It is also TOTALLY inaccurate to claim that without Ribera, futurism would not have reappeared. Very few of the futurist teachers even knew about Ribera's book.

As to Beza's writings, I have seen futurism in them, and am working on a development of what he actually said. That will take time.
The papacy was a literal fulfillment of the associated prophetic Scriptures, specifically those of antichrist. The spiritual success of the Reformation was a result of that realization.

There can be little doubt that, had the early apologists who futurized antichrist survived to the time of the Reformation, they would have joined in the Reformers' unanimity in recognizing the fulfillment of the associated prophetic Scriptures.

As a result of that recognition, there was NO futurization of antichrist in the eschatology of the true Church between the time of the Reformation and the time of the emergence of dispensational futurism. The only extant futurization was that fabricated by Ribera.

Thus, Ribera's futurism was the feedstock for dispensationalism's futurism.

It shouldn't take any "development" or time at all to provide some illustrative quotes from Beza's "futuristic writings".
 
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jgr

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You can pretend that the prophetic scriptures do not actually mean what they say, and thus come up with a "fulfillment" of them in the Papacy. But you cannot do this with the preserved writings of the early Church Fathers. They very clearly taught, and insisted upon, the concept that the prophecies in the Bible mean exactly what they say.

Remember the statement by Jerome, that I quoted earlier, that "the traditional interpretation of all the commentators of the Christian Church," was "that at the end of the world, when the Roman Empire is to be destroyed, there shall be ten kings who will partition the Roman world amongst themselves. Then an insignificant eleventh king will arise, who will overcome three of the ten kings... Then after they have been slain, the seven other kings will bow their necks to the victor." (Jerome’s comments on Daniel 7:8, as found in “Jerome’s Commentary on Daniel,” pg. 77, translated by Gleason L. Archer, Jr., published by Baker Book House, Grand Rapids, 1958.

There is no rational way to even pretend that this was fulfilled in the Papacy.
See post #212.

Try discarding futurized fantasies and ecumenical emasculators, and discovering the historical prophetic faith and sacrifice of the Reformation fathers, who with blood and in fire purchased a great many of the spiritual freedoms and liberties that we enjoy today, including those freedoms and liberties enjoyed by armchair futurists who disparage their memories.

If you dare.
 
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jgr

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Pretty much a bunch of malarkey:




Dan 9:26-27
26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.


"Messiah" is Hebrew Mashiyach (anointed, i.e., Christ in the Greek). Jesus was "cut off" by His death on the cross.


But "the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary" is about the Roman general Titus who destroyed Jerusalem and the temple in 69 A.D.

The "he" in the next verse MUST... be continued with that last pronoun of the person mentioned in verse 26, which is about Titus destroying the city and sanctuary.

27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

KJV

Therefore, that "he" cannot and is not, about our Lord Jesus. It's really simple to know that too by simply keeping to basic English grammar.

So how can Titus as that "prince" apply to the coming Antichrist which Paul warned of being revealed in Jerusalem sitting in the temple of God? That idea of a "prince" is the Hebrew word for a captain, or commander. It can just as easily apply to the coming Antichrist as a type for the end also.
Who is the only individual identified as a prince in that passage?

It is Messiah.

All of the "he's" in that passage refer to Him.

Titus and the Roman armies were prince Messiah's instruments of judgment and destruction. Desolation was the result of that destruction.
 
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jgr

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You can pretend that the prophetic scriptures do not actually mean what they say, and thus come up with a "fulfillment" of them in the Papacy. But you cannot do this with the preserved writings of the early Church Fathers. They very clearly taught, and insisted upon, the concept that the prophecies in the Bible mean exactly what they say.

Remember the statement by Jerome, that I quoted earlier, that "the traditional interpretation of all the commentators of the Christian Church," was "that at the end of the world, when the Roman Empire is to be destroyed, there shall be ten kings who will partition the Roman world amongst themselves. Then an insignificant eleventh king will arise, who will overcome three of the ten kings... Then after they have been slain, the seven other kings will bow their necks to the victor." (Jerome’s comments on Daniel 7:8, as found in “Jerome’s Commentary on Daniel,” pg. 77, translated by Gleason L. Archer, Jr., published by Baker Book House, Grand Rapids, 1958.

There is no rational way to even pretend that this was fulfilled in the Papacy.
Jerome came very close. All he missed was the timing. Had he survived until the Reformation, he would have corrected that too.

"when the Roman Empire is to be destroyed, there shall be ten kings who will partition the Roman world amongst themselves."
The ten horns of Daniel 7 -- Heruli, Suevi, Burgundians, Huns, Ostrogoths, Visigoths, Vandals, Lombards, Franks, Anglo-Saxons

"Then an insignificant eleventh king will arise"
The little horn of Daniel 7 -- the papacy.

"who will overcome three of the ten kings"
The three horns of Daniel 7 -- Heruli, Ostrogoths, Vandals

"Then after they have been slain, the seven other kings will bow their necks to the victor."
The remaining seven horns subsequently converted to Catholicism under the papacy.


All sombrely rational and without pretense. In other words, the historical record.
 
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Who is the only individual identified as a prince in that passage?

It is Messiah.

Wrong. The "prince" (not the Hebrew word for 'anointed', but a word for 'captain') in verse 26 is associated with the one who destroys the city and sanctuary. That was the Roman general Titus in 69 A.D.

All of the "he's" in that passage refer to Him.

No it doesn't. Simple English grammar requires the subject of the last person spoken of in verse 26 being the "he" of verse 27. And that last one spoken of was the Roman general Titus who destroyed Jerusalem and the temple.

Titus and the Roman armies were prince Messiah's instruments of judgment and destruction. Desolation was the result of that destruction.

If you're going to use that context, then it's actually the opposite, because Israel represents Christ's people, not... the Romans who destroyed Jerusalem and the temple.

And let's not create confusion with that word "Desolation" either, because that is not what the "abomination of desolation" in the Book of Daniel is about. Daniel 11 shows us what the "abomination of desolation" is, i.e., an idol abomination setup in false worship in Jerusalem.
 
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jgr

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Wrong. The "prince" (not the Hebrew word for 'anointed', but a word for 'captain') in verse 26 is associated with the one who destroys the city and sanctuary. That was the Roman general Titus in 69 A.D.



No it doesn't. Simple English grammar requires the subject of the last person spoken of in verse 26 being the "he" of verse 27. And that last one spoken of was the Roman general Titus who destroyed Jerusalem and the temple.



If you're going to use that context, then it's actually the opposite, because Israel represents Christ's people, not... the Romans who destroyed Jerusalem and the temple.

And let's not create confusion with that word "Desolation" either, because that is not what the "abomination of desolation" in the Book of Daniel is about. Daniel 11 shows us what the "abomination of desolation" is, i.e., an idol abomination setup in false worship in Jerusalem.
There is no mention of a Roman general.

"Messiah" does not mean prince.

The Hebrew word for "prince" is the same ("nagid") in both instances.

Messiah is the only prince in the passage.
 
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Biblewriter

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It shouldn't take any "development" or time at all to provide some illustrative quotes from Beza's "futuristic writings".

I had seen futuristic comments in notes allegedly based on Beza's writings. But I had not yet traced these comments back to any document actually published by Beza himself.

I now have found Beza's notes on Romans 11, in his translation of the New Testament. (The copy I have was published in 1599.) There, in regard to verse 25 he very clearly says "The blindness of the Jews is neither so universal that he hath no elect in that nation, neither shall it be continual: for there shall be a time when they also (as the Prophets have forewarned) shall effectively embrace that which they doe now so stubbornly reject and refuse."
 
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Biblewriter

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The papacy was a literal fulfillment of the associated prophetic Scriptures, specifically those of antichrist. The spiritual success of the Reformation was a result of that realization.

There can be little doubt that, had the early apologists who futurized antichrist survived to the time of the Reformation, they would have joined in the Reformers' unanimity in recognizing the fulfillment of the associated prophetic Scriptures.

As a result of that recognition, there was NO futurization of antichrist in the eschatology of the true Church between the time of the Reformation and the time of the emergence of dispensational futurism. The only extant futurization was that fabricated by Ribera.

Thus, Ribera's futurism was the feedstock for dispensationalism's futurism.

You seem to be unaware of the doctrine of the fourteenth century "Apostolic Brethren," who taught a future Antichrist, from whom they would be protected by being transfered into Paradise, only to return when the Antichrist was dead.

You also seem to be wholly ignorant of the widely circulated works of William Lowth, who discussed at length how the scriptures taught, and clearly taught, a future return of the Jews to their ancient homeland, and their mass conversion after that time, in the early 1700s, more than a hundred years before Dispensationalism was first formalized as a doctrine.

You also seem to be wholly ignorant of the doctrines of the English writer Lewis Way, who taught a fully developed Dispensationalisn in the early 1800s, before Darby or Irving wrote anything, and before Lacunza's work was translated into English.
 
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jgr

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I had seen futuristic comments in notes allegedly based on Beza's writings. But I had not yet traced these comments back to any document actually published by Beza himself.

I now have found Beza's notes on Romans 11, in his translation of the New Testament. (The copy I have was published in 1599.) There, in regard to verse 25 he very clearly says "The blindness of the Jews is neither so universal that he hath no elect in that nation, neither shall it be continual: for there shall be a time when they also (as the Prophets have forewarned) shall effectively embrace that which they doe now so stubbornly reject and refuse."
Nothing to do with a futurized antichrist.
 
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