You presented Mat 5:17-18 if I remember correctly. Your version is that all things means all prophecy is fulfilled. The problem I have is Lk 24:44 -I do not know what your are accusing me of dismissing, so I cannot explain; you seem to be taking my arguments out of the context of the debate I was having with the other bloke.
I never considered my post as consisting of conclusions so I wonder what you call a conclusion;
And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
This is a direct reference to Mat 5:7-18. Notice especially the last two words of the verse "concerning me." I do understand you will disagree.
No Jesus is not the I AM of the OT. Yes you may have Jn 8:58 in mind. Notice the KJV reads here - "I am" opposed to "I AM." John in no way is claiming Jesus is the god of Abraham (ie God the Father). I reference you to Jn 15:10 where John clearly shows with a quote from Jesus that He is not The Father. Furthermore the Redeemer of Gen 3:15 does not make an appearance until after Malachi when He was born of Mary. The law was until the seed (GEN 3:15) came (GAL 3:19). Good ole Dr. Luke said -That the I AM of the OT became Jesus, God in human form, and as Jesus He would not contradict what He said as the I AM.
The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it. 16:16
I have no idea where you get even an interpretation. But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law. Gal 5:18. Those who are led by the Spirit are not led back to or by the law."The spirit that leads people away from the Law is the spirit of anti-Christ."" this is a conclusion but I would call it an interpretation.
Again I point you to the self defining text of Jer 31:31-33 a single sentence.Jesus and the OT, which really is one testament, teaches only the keeping of the Law which is also called the covenant, never the abrogating of the Law or changing of the Law. At least in two places in the OT the Law (also called the covenant) was to go to the gentiles at some time in the future.
No because of Jesus' own words pointed out in 3 Gospels. Jesus confirmed the new covenant. The enemy of my soul pointed out nothing.In Daniel we read, "He will change Laws and times." and "He will confirm the covenant". The dispensationalists have Christ changing Laws and times (which never happened) and have Satan confirming a covenant.
Nope! Jer 31:31-33 and quoted in Heb 8 as a covenant based on promises opposed to law. Besides the words of Jesus found in 3 Gospels as the New Covenant being current.Christ confirmed the covenant by fulfilling everything said of him in the Law and the Prophets up until the drinking of vinegar; there is more to come; but the covenant being confirmed is God's covenant first given to Israel via Moses, but renewed many times; last renewed with the lost sheep of Israel, not the Gentiles but extended unchanged to the Gentiles in around Acts 3.
bugkiller
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