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Is Torah applicable for today?


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Mb_C

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I see right off the bat that you do not have a sound grasp of English. Paul plainly wrote that the ministry that brought death was the 10cs See the WAS? Past tense I do believe.
Well, if you want to be technical, this wasn't written in English. In the original Greek, Paul had that phrase written without the "state of being" verb. ie. He didn't include "was/is" because it was common to leave out the verb for predicate nominatives ("glory", δοξα, is the predicate nominative form) ie. the original Greek sentence didn't use "was". Therefore, verse 9 and 10 can be read like this:

"If the old way, which brings (there's no tense form here, because 'condemnation' is a noun in genitive form) condemnation, was/is/has/had (you cannot bring the importance of tense here, because there's no 'state of being' verb here; the 'was/is' is a filler to make it flow in English) glory/glorious ('glory' is more accurate because it's a noun in Greek), how much more glorious/glory (again, 'glory' is better because it's a noun) has/is (again, there's no verb here) the new way, which makes us right with God!"

I don't just read it in English. It's still a translation and meanings do get lost in translation for the sake of smooth reading in English, so I look up the sentence structure in the original text.

Because the ministry = 10cs and it ( the 10cs ) came with glory, people could not even look at Moses face because of the brightness because of the 10cs, Transitory (temporary) though it (10cs) WAS. There it is again WAS past tense.

Even if you don't look into the original sentence structure, a look across the large number of English translations can show the loss of meaning. You really shouldn't stick to one translation; each translation has verses that carry the thought and structure of the original text well while lacking in others.

Here's the NET version:
"But if the ministry that produced death– carved in letters on stone tablets– came with glory, so that the Israelites could not keep their eyes fixed on the face of Moses because of the glory of his face (a glory which was made ineffective)"
Here, the NET version correctly indicates that the last bit is a descriptive phrase of Moses' lit-up face by using parentheses. ie. "glory that ceased/made ineffectual" was a reference to Moses' face's glow.

The old written covenant ends in death; but under the new covnant, the Spirit gives life. The new covenant is not like the 10cs and the book of the law. The old written covenant ended in death. The new covenant gives life.

To be precise, Paul wrote in Greek that the letter still kills; Paul wrote that verb in the Present tense in the Active voice.
At a cursory reading, it certainly makes it sound like Paul wrote that the letter is the one doing the killing. It's not - it ends up killing you, but is not the one doing the killing. Romans 7:8-9 states the mechanism -> there's sin in you, but it doesn't result in killing you unless you're aware of the law of God. Once you know the law of God, the sin in you pounces on you and makes you dead.

Paul later stated in Romans 8:6-7 as to why that happens -> your carnal mind defaults to being totally against wanting to obey the law of God (the word Paul used in Greek means 'willing obedience' that is sometimes translated as 'subject to' which is NOT the same as 'under'), which means being cut off from God, so you die.

The old covenant, which was about humans promising "all you have said, WE will do", could only result in death because, as Romans 8:6-7 says, the default human carnal mind is driven to not being willingly obedient to the law of God.

The new covenant, which is about the Holy Spirit transforming your nature into a holy mind, results in life because this new nature's mind is driven to being willingly obedient to the law of God -> as a result, sin cannot pounce on you and bring death to you.

Romans 7 is an entirely different subject from 2Cor3. I would be glad to deal with that subject if you would like. Right now lets see what Paul really wrote in 2Cor 3 okay?

Well I'm surprised you're not linking these two statements together:

Romans 7:6 But now we are released from the law, having died to that which held us captive, so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit and not in the old way of the written code.
2 Corinthians 3:6 who has made us competent to be ministers of a new covenant, not of the letter but of the Spirit. For the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life.


In the case of what Paul wrote ministry means 10cs.


No my friend Paul was making us aware that the 10cs are not our guide today. We are guided by the Holy Spirit rather than 10 laws written on old cold stones of which are only a sampling of how we are to treat our fellow man. The Israelites were well aware of death because of breaking the law.
It was also a sampling of how we are to treat God. This thread has highlighted the main disagreement is about the command to remember the Sabbath by keeping it holy.

And you are so very right, that the 10C are just samples. Jesus pointed out that the nature of the adultery commandment extends to the mind's lust. The 10C are the behavioural guideposts. In Galatians 3:24, Paul described the 10C role as being the paidagogos, the tutor in charge of making sure a boy's behaviour and morals mirror what was expected of nobility.

It is precisely because the 10C are samples, that if you truly have matured into a spiritual adult, your behaviour and morals mirror that of the 10C. That is not to say that adults don't stumble while walking; they just don't stumble anywhere near as frequently as babies do.

I misunderstand nothing. I, at one time, misunderstood just as you do today. You have taken a perfectly simple text and tried to contort it to fit your preconceived ideas.
I have done nothing with interpreting concepts. What I have done is pointed out the importance of not relying purely on English translations to understand how it was written. Grammatical structure analysis is mainly what I've done. Not interpretation, but translation.
I serve Jesus and His better covenant. I have the perfect law that governs my life, the Royal law of love. It does mot have ritual keeping of days honoring barley, new moons and the release of a people out of Egyptian bondage.
Ok, I see another misunderstanding to clear up -> the 10C covenant had nothing to do with the new moons, agricultural and bounty celebrations, etc. Those laws were not included in the covenant with Israel. Those laws were given after the 10C covenant had already been ratified, which means nothing could be added to it.

While the Sabbath was given to Israel to remind them of God's deliverance from Egypt, the Sabbath did not originate because of this deliverance. Furthermore, the command was to remember the Sabbath by keeping it holy; the command did not institute the Sabbath. The command was about how to treat the Sabbath.

I serve the Savior every day. He is creator and redeemer. I rest in Jesus. That is what He asks of His servants and I claim His promises.
So do I. The Sabbath isn't a day to serve God. We are to serve Him every day. The Sabbath is the day God set aside as the special time to bask in His providence and to extend His blessings to others. A husband shouldn't be loving to His wife only on special dating nights, but every day. Nevertheless, those dating nights are different - they hold special meaning. That's how it is with the Sabbath.

First of all it would be nice if you would show some respect, I am not dude.
It was not my intention to offend, but to lighten up the intensity by attempting less formal address standards. If you want me to be more formal, then I will oblige.

It means eternal salvation to keep the Sabbath holy unto the Lord. God says: "Them that honor Me I will honor." {6T 356.4}

This is taken out of context of the earlier sentences.
"
God has set His Sabbath at the end of the six working days, that men may stop and consider what they have gained during the week in preparation for the pure kingdom which admits no transgressor. We should each Sabbath reckon with our souls to see whether the week that has ended has brought spiritual gain or loss. {6T 356.3} It means eternal salvation to keep the Sabbath holy unto the Lord. God says: "Them that honor Me I will honor." 1 Samuel 2:30. {6T 356.4} "

The Sabbath is directly related to eternal salvation, because without the special reflection required of the Sabbath, you will not recognise when you have progressed or regressed in your spiritual development. You may say, "I do this everyday," and that is good. But realistically, it is easy to forget to do that. But even if you do, it is the special day set aside by God to do it. This is reflected in the sacrifices on the Sabbath being special according to Levitical law.


But if we turn aside from the fourth commandment, so positively given by God, to adopt the inventions of Satan, voiced and acted by men under his control, we cannot be saved. We cannot with safety receive his traditions and subtleties as truth. {RH, July 6, 1897 par. 4}

Again, as with my comment above, the Sabbath is a special time God has set. Satan convinced the Catholic church back then that it was ok to do so. If you are asking "what does it matter?", then the fact you ask this shows why it matters. Satan's purpose was to make people think it is ok to disregard God's law for the sake of convenience.

As I affirmed earlier in this reply, the 10C is the sample behaviour expected from those who claim to be spiritual adults. A spiritual adult in God's kingdom would not be saying it is ok to behave in a way contrary to the sample behaviour, because that's the minimum. Jesus said: "Unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees (who made it their mission to follow the law scrupulously, including their own made-up restrictions), you cannot enter into the kingdom of heaven." You can't make a cup overflow until you've reached the brim. But it is impossible without having your nature first converted by the Holy Spirit.


No one who disregards the fourth commandment, after becoming enlightened in regard to the claims of the Sabbath, can be held guiltless in the sight of God. {RH, July 6, 1897 par. 14}
Well I am surprised you disagreed with this. Substitute this statement with what Jesus said about adultery and it reads like this:
"No man who disregards the commandment about adultery, after becoming enlightened in regard to the claims of it extending to lust in the mind, can be held guiltless in the sight of God when that man lusts after another woman."

All will be judged according to the light that has shone upon them. If they have light upon the Sabbath, they cannot be saved in rejecting that light.{HS 234.3}
This is an application of what Jesus said:
"
Luke 12:47 And that servant who knew his lord's will and did not prepare, nor did according to His will, shall be beaten with many stripes."


As persons become convinced from the Scriptures that the claims of the fourth commandment are still binding, the question is often raised, Is it necessary in order to secure salvation that we keep the Sabbath? This is a question of grave importance. If the light has shone from the word of God, if the message has been presented to men, as it was to Pharaoh, and they refuse to heed that message, if they reject the light, they refuse to obey God, and cannot be saved in their disobedience. {RH, January 5, 1886 par. 2}

Again, this is the application of what Jesus said in Luke 12:47. The key phrase being "If the light has shone". By "light has shone", it doesn't mean mere listing of proof in front of a person. It has to be presented the way truth was presented to Pharaoh. Pharaoh's heart hardened as a result of God's Spirit being involved (Exodus 4:21). If the truth is presented to someone, but without the Holy Spirit enlightening them, then it is not the same as "rejecting" - instead it is "not understanding".

Most all Christians have read the fourth commandment, so most Christians have made a choice not to observe it and according to the prophet we are all going to die the second death.
Again, reading without the Holy Spirit enlightening the passages is "not understanding" and is very different from "rejecting".

When you became a SDA you took an oath to believe what the prophet wrote.
Not an oath. An affirmation of belief.

The Holy Spirit has never prompted anyone to observe Sabbath. If that were true your church would not have to spend millions upon millions to try to convince people to observe it. Most, as you should know, do not take the bait. Finding sheep to join your ranks is not an easy task.
"spend millions upon millions"? A rather extravagant claim, just because we add what the Bible says about the Sabbath to the list of things we present in evangelism meetings? We preach only what the Bible says about anything. Since Jesus brought up the Sabbath during His first coming, that's what we do too.

God's "character" is much, much larger than the 10 cs. Yours is a canned SDA statement that SDA preachers sling around without really thinking what it means. You all are limiting God to the 10cs? What a shame.
To the contrary, we are merely saying it is impossible to run (have God's character) before being able to walk (willingly obeying the sample, the 10C) and that it is impossible to walk without having legs (the Holy Spirit enabling the possibility by changing your carnal mind).
 
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Cribstyl

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Again you're confusing righteousness with the Law.... you don't seem to get it so I'll leave you to your own thoughts.
Your thoughts are not scriptures. I'm sure his ideas are truths from scriptures.
Clue: There is both righteousness by the law and righteousness by faith. Righteousness by the law was given through Moses.
Deu 6:25 And it shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the LORD our God, as he hath commanded us.

The fact that righteousness 'without' the law is spelled out under the New Covenant, makes it clear what law the bible is talking about.
Rom 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

The law and the prophet (OT), witnessed that God would give a new covenant unlike the one given to the father.(THE LAW). WAKE UP!!!!
 
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Cribstyl

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News flash Bob, the only things that will put you under the curse of the law, is lawlessness. Transgressing the Commandments is lawlessness according to
1 John 3:4
Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
You gotta be blindfolded. Anyone talking about "curse of the law" should understand the context of that quote.
Gal 3:10
For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.”[fn]

Paraphrase: The person who is working on keeping the law is under a curse, because the law says; curse is everyone who does not keep every word written in the law.
 
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Sophrosyne

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You gotta be blindfolded. Anyone talking about "curse of the law" should understand the context of that quote.
Gal 3:10
For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.”[fn]

Paraphrase: The person who is working on keeping the law is under a curse, because the law says; curse is everyone who does not keep every word written in the law.
notice that he IGNORES the word "also" in the scripture which means that there are sins other than those that the Law prescribes.
 
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disciple1

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That's not what the verse says....you are reading these scriptures biased by your own rebellious heart... I'd point it out to you but it would be like waving a Franklin in front of a blind man.
Why is Paul preaching something different than you then, in Romans chapter 9 verses 30 to Romans chapter 10 verse 4 it shows you can't get anywhere trying to obey the law.
I once here'd a saying over 30 years ago take the cotton out of your ears and put it in your mouth, I think that would work for you.
Galatians
11 I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel I preached is not of human origin. 12 I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.

13 For you have heard of my previous way of life in Judaism, how intensely I persecuted the church of God and tried to destroy it. 14 I was advancing in Judaism beyond many of my own age among my people and was extremely zealous for the traditions of my fathers. 15 But when God, who set me apart from my mother’s womb and called me by his grace, was pleased 16 to reveal his Son in me so that I might preach him among the Gentiles, my immediate response was not to consult any human being. 17 I did not go up to Jerusalem to see those who were apostles before I was, but I went into Arabia. Later I returned to Damascus.

18 Then after three years, I went up to Jerusalem to get acquainted with Cephas[b] and stayed with him fifteen days. 19 I saw none of the other apostles—only James, the Lord’s brother. 20 I assure you before God that what I am writing you is no lie.

21 Then I went to Syria and Cilicia. 22 I was personally unknown to the churches of Judea that are in Christ. 23 They only heard the report: “The man who formerly persecuted us is now preaching the faith he once tried to destroy.” 24 And they praised God because of me.
 
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bugkiller

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News flash Bob, the only things that will put you under the curse of the law, is lawlessness. Transgressing the Commandments is lawlessness according to
1 John 3:4
Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
Being disobedient to the law isn't what makes one regulated by it.

bugkiller
 
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bugkiller

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Again you're confusing righteousness with the Law.... you don't seem to get it so I'll leave you to your own thoughts.
Then is your idea of sinning unrighteousness? Don't you claim violating the law is sinning? To me you seem awfully confused.

bugkiller
 
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bugkiller

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That's not what the verse says....you are reading these scriptures biased by your own rebellious heart... I'd point it out to you but it would be like waving a Franklin in front of a blind man.
So what does the verse say?

bugkiller
 
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Mb_C

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Then is your idea of sinning unrighteousness? Don't you claim violating the law is sinning? To me you seem awfully confused.
To be clear, there is really no such thing as a sin not covered by the 10C if, like Jesus did, the true meaning of the 10C was expanded (the Greek gets translated as 'fulfilled' or 'made complete') to cover intentions. For example, the 10C did not cover it being a sin not to tithe. The explicit wording doesn't cover it. However, God later said in Malachi 3 that not giving tithe = robbing God = breaking the commandment not to steal. And, as Jesus explained, the commandment to not murder covers anger without good cause. As for sins of omission, like standing by and doing nothing when you can see someone in desperate need of help - that falls under "taking the name of the LORD in vain". Taking on the name of the LORD is the equivalent of claiming to represent Him, ergo, you are supposed to do your best to represent His name, which is His character; would you suggest God's character would consider not helping someone in desperate need? [in my opinion this is the broadest of commandments, because it is essentially saying "don't do what God won't do but do the things God would do"]
 
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Mb_C

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1 John chapter 1 verse 8
If anyone claims to be without sin they deceive themselves and the truth is not in them.
James chapter 2 verse 10
If anyone keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it.
John was talking about claiming not having ever sinned. Look at 1 John 1:9-10. He's not saying we are in a perpetual state of having sin, otherwise verse 9 makes no sense since it's about getting rid of it. Furthermore, 1 John 3:6 "No one who lives in him keeps on sinning. No one who continues to sin has either seen him or known him."

As for James 2:10 you're taking what he wrote out of the context of James 2:8-9, which is that favouritism breaks the royal law of love. While verse 11 talks about the 10C, James really lumped it all together and said "break one, you break all".

1 John 3:6 says that if you live in Him, you don't keep on sinning, ie. you don't go on breaking the 10C nor the summary - the royal law of love (which is the intentions extension of the 10C and is as old as the 10C). There's a change in behaviour. "But it's impossible for a human to be without sin" is really a lie espoused by the devil. When you say it's impossible, you're saying Jesus' sacrifice isn't strong enough to kill off your old nature of "know what's good to do but end up not doing it" (Romans 7:21-25). Jesus' sacrifice wasn't just for our justification, but it's a complete package - He sanctifies us, which means He changes our character and thus our behaviour. Would you suggest Jesus' power isn't strong enough to sanctify us to 100%. Sure, it's a rough journey, but... really? To suggest that His progress bar with the Sanctification Firmware is permanently stuck at 10, 20, 30% makes His re-programming skills sound impotent.
 
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Sophrosyne

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To be clear, there is really no such thing as a sin not covered by the 10C if, like Jesus did, the true meaning of the 10C was expanded (the Greek gets translated as 'fulfilled' or 'made complete') to cover intentions. For example, the 10C did not cover it being a sin not to tithe. The explicit wording doesn't cover it. However, God later said in Malachi 3 that not giving tithe = robbing God = breaking the commandment not to steal. And, as Jesus explained, the commandment to not murder covers anger without good cause. As for sins of omission, like standing by and doing nothing when you can see someone in desperate need of help - that falls under "taking the name of the LORD in vain". Taking on the name of the LORD is the equivalent of claiming to represent Him, ergo, you are supposed to do your best to represent His name, which is His character; would you suggest God's character would consider not helping someone in desperate need? [in my opinion this is the broadest of commandments, because it is essentially saying "don't do what God won't do but do the things God would do"]
This is utter nonsense. The 10 allowed one to hate and lust all they want as long as they didn't ascribe to physical acts of murder and adultery. The Law proscribed death for adultery yet nothing was done if a man lustied after every woman there was around. The fact Jesus himself had to tell people it was wrong to lust and hate made it obvious that the 10 didn't cover those actions itself otherwise people would have known it already.
 
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Mb_C

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This is utter nonsense. The 10 allowed one to hate and lust all they want as long as they didn't ascribe to physical acts of murder and adultery. The Law proscribed death for adultery yet nothing was done if a man lustied after every woman there was around. The fact Jesus himself had to tell people it was wrong to lust and hate made it obvious that the 10 didn't cover those actions itself otherwise people would have known it already.
You're right, but it's not nonsense. Read the whole thing. Jesus said that He came to 'pleroo' (make complete, finish, fill up) the law, because, as you said, reading it purely on the text alone doesn't suggest it covers intentions. However, Jesus said it actually does. What this means is that all sins are accounted by the 10C when the parameter of understanding it encompasses intention. Just because God hadn't made it clear (by His wisdom He aimed to address it incrementally) to the Israelites until 27AD, that doesn't change the fact that the 10C actually addresses all types of sin.
 
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Sophrosyne

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You're right, but it's not nonsense. Read the whole thing. Jesus said that He came to 'pleroo' (make complete, finish, fill up) the law, because, as you said, reading it purely on the text alone doesn't suggest it covers intentions. However, Jesus said it actually does. What this means is that all sins are accounted by the 10C when the parameter of understanding it encompasses intention. Just because God hadn't made it clear (by His wisdom He aimed to address it incrementally) to the Israelites until 27AD, that doesn't change the fact that the 10C actually addresses all types of sin.
It is still nonsense as there was sin before the 10 commandments and one commandment was nowhere seen as a sin till it was given exclusively to Israel... The Sabbath commandment was only a sin to Israel and only after it was given to them at Sinai. Without the Sabbath commandment listed as a sin all your words are nothing to Christians and everything to Jews who reject Jesus and Paul.
 
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Mb_C

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It is still nonsense as there was sin before the 10 commandments and one commandment was nowhere seen as a sin till it was given exclusively to Israel... The Sabbath commandment was only a sin to Israel and only after it was given to them at Sinai. Without the Sabbath commandment listed as a sin all your words are nothing to Christians and everything to Jews who reject Jesus and Paul.
Having no knowledge of the law does not excuse transgression, it just means the transgressor is not punished the same.

Ezekiel 3
18 When I say to a wicked person, 'You will surely die,' and you do not warn them or speak out to dissuade them from their evil ways in order to save their life, that wicked person will die for their sin, and I will hold you accountable for their blood.
19 But if you do warn the wicked person and they do not turn from their wickedness or from their evil ways, they will die for their sin; but you will have saved yourself.
20 "Again, when a righteous person turns from their righteousness and does evil, and I put a stumbling block before them, they will die. Since you did not warn them, they will die for their sin. The righteous things that person did will not be remembered, and I will hold you accountable for their blood.
21 But if you do warn the righteous person not to sin and they do not sin, they will surely live because they took warning, and you will have saved yourself."

Luke 12
47 "The servant who knows the master's will and does not get ready or does not do what the master wants will be beaten with many blows.
48 But the one who does not know and does things deserving punishment will be beaten with few blows. From everyone who has been given much, much will be demanded; and from the one who has been entrusted with much, much more will be asked.

As for the command to keep the Sabbath holy only applying to Israel, this is not true. God's intentions for the Sabbath for Gentiles was made known later.
Isaiah 56
6 "Also the foreigners who join themselves to the LORD, To minister to Him, and to love the name of the LORD, To be His servants, every one who keeps from profaning the sabbath And holds fast My covenant;
7 Even those I will bring to My holy mountain And make them joyful in My house of prayer. Their burnt offerings and their sacrifices will be acceptable on My altar; For My house will be called a house of prayer for all the peoples."

One more thing has to be established: The 4th Commandment did not institute the Sabbath. The 4th C is a commandment about how to treat the Sabbath. The Sabbath existed prior to the 10C being handed down. The Sabbath belonged and still belongs to God; the Sabbath is God's property. The 4th C was about how to treat God's property. ie. a care instruction manual of the machine and not the machine itself.

An appropriate analogy is that God is teaching the firstborn child (Israel) how to properly polish glassware. The younger children (Gentiles) can't be taught yet because they aren't old enough to understand so they can get away broken glass. But over time, when the time is right, they are able to do so. The Sabbath is God's property, but all the other nations were not ready yet. God doesn't reveal everything to everyone at the same time.
 
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Sophrosyne

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Having no knowledge of the law does not excuse transgression, it just means the transgressor is not punished the same.

Ezekiel 3
18 When I say to a wicked person, 'You will surely die,' and you do not warn them or speak out to dissuade them from their evil ways in order to save their life, that wicked person will die for their sin, and I will hold you accountable for their blood.
19 But if you do warn the wicked person and they do not turn from their wickedness or from their evil ways, they will die for their sin; but you will have saved yourself.
20 "Again, when a righteous person turns from their righteousness and does evil, and I put a stumbling block before them, they will die. Since you did not warn them, they will die for their sin. The righteous things that person did will not be remembered, and I will hold you accountable for their blood.
21 But if you do warn the righteous person not to sin and they do not sin, they will surely live because they took warning, and you will have saved yourself."

Luke 12
47 "The servant who knows the master's will and does not get ready or does not do what the master wants will be beaten with many blows.
48 But the one who does not know and does things deserving punishment will be beaten with few blows. From everyone who has been given much, much will be demanded; and from the one who has been entrusted with much, much more will be asked.

As for the command to keep the Sabbath holy only applying to Israel, this is not true. God's intentions for the Sabbath for Gentiles was made known later.
Isaiah 56
6 "Also the foreigners who join themselves to the LORD, To minister to Him, and to love the name of the LORD, To be His servants, every one who keeps from profaning the sabbath And holds fast My covenant;
7 Even those I will bring to My holy mountain And make them joyful in My house of prayer. Their burnt offerings and their sacrifices will be acceptable on My altar; For My house will be called a house of prayer for all the peoples."

One more thing has to be established: The 4th Commandment did not institute the Sabbath. The 4th C is a commandment about how to treat the Sabbath. The Sabbath existed prior to the 10C being handed down. The Sabbath belonged and still belongs to God; the Sabbath is God's property. The 4th C was about how to treat God's property. ie. a care instruction manual of the machine and not the machine itself.

An appropriate analogy is that God is teaching the firstborn child (Israel) how to properly polish glassware. The younger children (Gentiles) can't be taught yet because they aren't old enough to understand so they can get away broken glass. But over time, when the time is right, they are able to do so. The Sabbath is God's property, but all the other nations were not ready yet. God doesn't reveal everything to everyone at the same time.
Again you ignore Paul and the bible that says there was sin before the Law and the law was added BECAUSE of Transgression.
One cannot sin against a law that doesn't apply to them just as an American cannot be convicted of speeding by a canadian cop if they never venture into Canada as their law doesn't apply it has no jurisdiction. Christians are not Israel and the laws that apply to Israel are not binding on non citizens of Israel plain and simple otherwise God would have had Israel wipe out every foreigner around them for breaking the Sabbath. Why did God not command non Israelies be killed for violating Gods 10 commandments? Why did God not tell Israel to punish Gentiles for breaking the 10 commandments? because they are not of Israel thus the commandments don't apply.
 
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Mb_C

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Again you ignore Paul and the bible that says there was sin before the Law and the law was added BECAUSE of Transgression.
I am not ignoring it. If anything, I actually affirmed it.

Your analogy of "an American cannot be convicted of speeding by a canadian cop if they never venture into Canada as their law doesn't apply it has no jurisdiction" is not the right analogy, because the whole earth is God's domain. The law was added because the sinners did not know that they were sinning. ie. Romans 7:7 "for I would not have known about coveting if the Law had not said, "YOU SHALL NOT COVET.""

For those who sinned without knowing the law, they get judged differently. What God did was instead reveal that what they were doing was wrong. He just said "it's wrong" without giving the 10C yet. Was Abimelech about to sin when he took Sarah (Abraham's wife and half sister)? YES. Genesis 20:3 says so. But was the 10C given yet? No. God warned him instead by a dream.

Christians are not Israel and the laws that apply to Israel are not binding on non citizens of Israel plain and simple otherwise God would have had Israel wipe out every foreigner around them for breaking the Sabbath. Why did God not command non Israelies be killed for violating Gods 10 commandments? Why did God not tell Israel to punish Gentiles for breaking the 10 commandments? because they are not of Israel thus the commandments don't apply.
If your logic is to be applied to God's actions, God would have been unjust. God destroyed all of humanity by flood except one family. Where was the 10C? Not yet handed down. So, did God punish them while being ignorant of being wicked? By what standard did God judge them as wicked?
 
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BobRyan

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Again you ignore Paul and the bible .

Which Paul ?

This one?


Acts 21

24 take them and purify yourself along with them, and pay their expenses so that they may shave their heads; and all will know that there is nothing to the things which they have been told about you, but that you yourself also walk orderly, keeping the Law

Acts 24
14But this I confess to you, that according to the Way which they call a sect, so I worship the God of my fathers, believing all things which are written in the Law and in the Prophets


Acts 25
8 while he answered for himself, “Neither against the law of the Jews, nor against the temple, nor against Caesar have I offended in anything at all.;


Acts 26
Therefore, having obtained help from God, to this day I stand, witnessing both to small and great, saying no other things than those which the prophets and Moses said would come; 23 that the Christ would suffer, that He would be the first to rise from the dead, and would proclaim light to the Jewish people and to the Gentiles;


Acts 28
17 And it came to pass after three days that Paul called the leaders of the Jews together. So when they had come together, he said to them: Men and brethren, though I have done nothing against our people or the customs of our fathers, yet I was delivered as a prisoner from Jerusalem into the hands of the Romans,... I have called for you, to see you and speak with you, because for the hope of Israel I am bound with this chain.

...
23 So when they had appointed him a day, many came to him at his lodging, to whom he explained and solemnly testified of the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus from both the Law of Moses and the Prophets, from morning till evening


or ---------------- this one

Notice the phrase "under the law" as it condemns the entire world.

Rom 3

19 Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God; 20 because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin.






What then of the saints - that are not "under" that condemnation? "Sin IS transgression of the LAW" 1 John 3:4 even for the saints - so ... shall they simply choose sin?


Romans 6

What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin so that grace may increase? 2 May it never be! How shall we who died to sin still live in it? 3 Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death? 4 Therefore we have been buried with Him through baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in newness of life. 5 For if we have become united with Him in the likeness of His death, certainly we shall also be in the likeness of His resurrection, 6 knowing this, that our old self was crucified with Him, in order that our body of sin might be done away with, so that we would no longer be slaves to sin; 7 for he who has died is freed from sin.

...

12 Therefore do not let sin reign in your mortal body so that you obey its lusts, 13 and do not go on presenting the members of your body to sin as instruments of unrighteousness; but present yourselves to God as those alive from the dead, and your members as instruments of righteousness to God. 14 For sin shall not be master over you, for you are not under law but under grace.

15 What then? Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace? May it never be! 16 Do you not know that when you present yourselves to someone as slaves for obedience, you are slaves of the one whom you obey, either of sin resulting in death, or of obedience resulting in righteousness?
...
20 For when you were slaves of sin, you were free in regard to righteousness. 21 Therefore what benefit were you then deriving from the things of which you are now ashamed? For the outcome of those things is death. 22 But now having been freed from sin and enslaved to God, you derive your benefit, resulting in sanctification, and the outcome, eternal life. 23 For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.
 
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BobRyan

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Again you ignore Paul and the bible that says there was sin before the Law and the law was added BECAUSE of Transgression.
One cannot sin against a law that doesn't apply

Rom 4 "Where there is no Law there is no sin"
1 Johh 3:4 'sin IS transgression of the LAW"

Adam and Eve sinned. (Romans 5)

Cain - sinned. (Gen 4)
 
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Sophrosyne

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I am not ignoring it. If anything, I actually affirmed it.

Your analogy of "an American cannot be convicted of speeding by a canadian cop if they never venture into Canada as their law doesn't apply it has no jurisdiction" is not the right analogy, because the whole earth is God's domain. The law was added because the sinners did not know that they were sinning. ie. Romans 7:7 "for I would not have known about coveting if the Law had not said, "YOU SHALL NOT COVET.""

For those who sinned without knowing the law, they get judged differently. What God did was instead reveal that what they were doing was wrong. He just said "it's wrong" without giving the 10C yet. Was Abimelech about to sin when he took Sarah (Abraham's wife and half sister)? YES. Genesis 20:3 says so. But was the 10C given yet? No. God warned him instead by a dream.


If your logic is to be applied to God's actions, God would have been unjust. God destroyed all of humanity by flood except one family. Where was the 10C? Not yet handed down. So, did God punish them while being ignorant of being wicked? By what standard did God judge them as wicked?
I'm sorry but the Bible speaks differently it says that the Law was given exclusively to Israel and proof that it wasn't binding to anyone but Israel is written down as no other nation was held accountable to it by the historical documentation in the Bible itself. We don't see anyone stoned outside of Israel for adultery or Sabbath "breaking". Gentiles in the Bible in the New Testament were not subjected to the Law either and the council of Jerusalem itself attests that that. I'm glad you admit that those who don't know the law get judged differently that concludes that the Law is truly NOT the arbiter of sin because if it was then ALL would be treated the same by the Law knowing it or NOT.
 
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Sophrosyne

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Rom 4 "Where there is no Law there is no sin"
1 Johh 3:4 'sin IS transgression of the LAW"

Adam and Eve sinned. (Romans 5)

Cain - sinned. (Gen 4)
Thanks for verifying that sin IS apart from the Law (exists regardless of it existing).
 
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