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Matthew 4:4
keras said in post 4690:
Jesus said: No one goes to heaven, except the One who came from heaven. John 3:13
John 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
This means that no man but Jesus had ascended into heaven in a way involving his own power. For Elijah had ascended into heaven, but by an external power (2 Kings 2:11). And if he did that, then Enoch and Moses could have also ascended into heaven by an external power (Hebrews 11:5, Genesis 5:24, Jude 1:9). And at one point during the future tribulation, so will the 144,000 male-virgins part of the church, represented by the "man child", be caught up into heaven (Revelation 12:5, Revelation 14:1,4,5, Textus Receptus). And the 2 witnesses will also eventually be taken into heaven (Revelation 11:12). Also, the apostle Paul, at one point during his lifetime, was temporarily taken into heaven (2 Corinthians 12:2-7), just as the apostle John was at one point (Revelation 4).
In John 3:13, "ascended" is in the active voice, which, while it doesn't require the subject ascended by his own power, it can mean that. For example, compare Jesus "rising up" in Luke 22:45.
Regarding Jesus' post-resurrection ascension, the passive-voice ascension in Acts 1:11 can be taken together with the active voice ascension in Ephesians 4:8 to mean that Jesus' post-resurrection ascension occurred by both an external power and his own power working together at the same time. An analogy would be a man walking up an ascending escalator. But John 3:13 was spoken years before Acts 1:11 occurred. And John 3:13 was referring to a perfect-tense ascension of Jesus, meaning that it had already been completed sometime before John 3:13 was spoken. This prior ascension of Jesus, like his later ascension in Ephesians 4:8 and Acts 1:11, could have involved his own power. For in John 3:13, "ascended" is in the active voice.
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