Here we go again, AV1611. You say you won't bother to study evolution. Result: You just ended up with egg all over fact abut Nebraska man. I'm surprised you didn't go for the biggy here, the supposed jugular vein of all juggler veins for creation-science and other people like you thrust their holy and righteous sword into: Tada, now presenting Piltdowm man. Since you appear lazy and not wanting to do your homework, I guess I should quickly fill you in. Back in merry old England, in the early part of the last century, a skull was found that , to many, seemed to be the Missing Link. Made quite a stir. Impressed some real baggiest, as I remember: Sir SC Doyle, etc. Sure looked like what one would expect for the missing link: sort of a human-looking head, definitely ape jaw. Ended up as one of the great treasures in the British Museum, or at least in the POV of the curator who snapped this specimen up before it could be scientifically examined in any real detail. The museum continually denied requests from scientists to study it. Museums do that, you know. Dubbs off the exhibits, you know, all that sort of thing. In the early sixties, someone finally got permission to take it out and examine it. Why examine? There always was suspicion in the scientific community that this find was a it too cute, if you know what I mean,. Result: It's probably a fake. Well, maybe not. Before it could be studied further, along came a group of righteous Christian who broke and smashes it to pieces. These Christians only further stirred up the controversy. If it is really a fake, why destroy it? More importantly, in their righteous zeal to destroy, they merely fanned the flames. By destroying it, we have no hard evidence at all, absolutely zero hard evidence that such a hoax actually happened. You can't fault evolutionary people, unless you can put on the table the hard evidence, the "fake" itself. No body, no crime. An interesting sideline here is that very few books on evolution ever mentioned the Piltdown man.
If you don't mind my asking, what's with the 1611 in you nym? Are you a King James Onlyist? I mean, you are referring to the famous 1611 edition of the KJV, aren't you? If so, I sure hope you have homework and are prepared to hear what I am about to say. In no way, shape, or form do you a copy of the 1611 edition to read from. In fact, if one was given to you, you might find it well impossible for you to read at all. The word usage is very different. As I recall, 'then" meant our "than, " etc., spelling was way different. "Be" was written "Beee." etc. So why walk around with 1611 pasted all over the place, on you car, hat, etc..,as KJV Onlyists do? Why profess some sort of allegiance to a book you can't even read? Why can't you be honest and cite the year of the edition you are reading? Also, if it is your position, as many KJV Onlyists profess, that the 1611 edition is the only true bible, the preceding ones being just a rough draft, then how do you explain the fact that the translators never made a claim this particular Bible, this particular translation is inerrant? After all, the traditional POV is that inerrancy only covers the originals, not the copies, and certainly not the translations. You know, you might find it an interesting read sometime to study how and why the Pilgrims would have nothing at all to do with the KJV.
If you don't mind my asking, what's with the 1611 in you nym? Are you a King James Onlyist? I mean, you are referring to the famous 1611 edition of the KJV, aren't you? If so, I sure hope you have homework and are prepared to hear what I am about to say. In no way, shape, or form do you a copy of the 1611 edition to read from. In fact, if one was given to you, you might find it well impossible for you to read at all. The word usage is very different. As I recall, 'then" meant our "than, " etc., spelling was way different. "Be" was written "Beee." etc. So why walk around with 1611 pasted all over the place, on you car, hat, etc..,as KJV Onlyists do? Why profess some sort of allegiance to a book you can't even read? Why can't you be honest and cite the year of the edition you are reading? Also, if it is your position, as many KJV Onlyists profess, that the 1611 edition is the only true bible, the preceding ones being just a rough draft, then how do you explain the fact that the translators never made a claim this particular Bible, this particular translation is inerrant? After all, the traditional POV is that inerrancy only covers the originals, not the copies, and certainly not the translations. You know, you might find it an interesting read sometime to study how and why the Pilgrims would have nothing at all to do with the KJV.
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