First off much of the law physically can not be observed because we are not living in the land.
Thanks for this admission. That then leaves us with part of
the law. Two very prominent Jewish NT authors both say it is all or none when it comes to observing
the law. Since this is a requirement there is no need to try and observe part of or an amended version of
the law.
Daniel and his observant contemporaries COULD NOT observe much of the Torah because they were not in the land. Does that somehow invalidate the Torah because they couldn't observe? No it did not and does not today.
I would say it doesn't invalidate the covenant given to them at that time. Today however is a much different story. We have an New Covenant as promised and validated by Jesus and the historical record of Acts which now includes the whole world.
Christ also instructed his followers to OBEY the Pharisee's and Scribes
Matthew 23:1 Then Jesus spoke to the crowds and to His disciples, 2 saying: The scribes and the Pharisees have seated themselves in the chair of Moses; 3 therefore all that they tell you, do and observe, but do not do according to their deeds; for they say things and do not do them.
Here Messiah says to obey the Pharisee's. He also says that he did not come to ABOLISH THE LAW
Matthew 5: 17 Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill.
Abolish: to officially end or stop (something, such as a law) : to completely do away with (something)
OK I can agree with this. But then you must deal with LK 24:44
And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
This permits
the law to be changed and or done away with as witnessed by Heb 7:12. Otherwise Jesus (God) is sinning.
You must also deal with I Tim 1:7-11
7 Desiring to be teachers of the law; understanding neither what they say, nor whereof they affirm.
8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;
9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
11 According to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which was committed to my trust.
To say
the law is for the believer is to say they are wicked and lawless. That goes against Romans 3-8. Righteousness is apart from
the law and a free gift by declaration delivering the Christian from
the law. The body of flesh isn't and has never been subject to
the law.
Pleroo is the Gk word render Fulfill in English and it means:
to make full, to fill up, i.e. to fill to the full
to cause to abound, to furnish or supply liberally
I abound, I am liberally supplied
to render full, i.e. to complete
to fill to the top: so that nothing shall be wanting to full measure, fill to the brim
to consummate: a number
to make complete in every particular, to render perfect
to carry through to the end, to accomplish, carry out, (some undertaking)
to carry into effect, bring to realization, realize
of matters of duty: to perform, execute
of sayings, promises, prophecies, to bring to pass, ratify, accomplish
to fulfil, i.e. to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be obeyed as it should be, and God's promises (given through the prophets) to receive fulfilment
Only 1 of those many descriptive words carries connotation of ending which MUST be wrong here because Messiah makes it clear that he is not ABOLISHING the Torah.
But
the law is permitted to change by His confession in LK 24:44 which reveals more completely what He said in Mat 5:17-18. That was purposefully hidden at the time spoken as v 45 reveals.
45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,
If you try to force Fulfill to mean end you end with Messiah saying something that is pure gibberish:
Do not think that I came to end (abolish) the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to end (abolish) but to end (fulfill) the law.
No because of Romans 10:4
For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.
Not only is
the law over but the verse says specifically for who it is over. This meshes with I Tim 1:9. For those who insist Christians and everyone else for the most part are observing
the law simply because they're not murdering, lying, stealing, committing adultery is bogus. Obedience by incidence isn't obedience to anything. Its merely coincidence and that's all. To say the Christian is sinning by not observing the Sabbath is also bogus. (We have a New Covenant which does not include the 10 Cs.) Those who say they are observing the Sabbath and buying electricity or driving to church are lying and not incompliance with the commandment. They have no right to amend the stone tablets.
A religious organization well represented here teaches one can not be saved while not keeping the Sabbath.
It means eternal salvation to keep the Sabbath holy unto the Lord" found in {6T 356.4}
This is the major factor in the pro arguments about the Sabbath.
Of course the use of end, do away with, finish CAN NOT be the proper understanding of the word fulfill and the correct choice for properly translating Pleroo is:
to cause God's will (as made known in the law) to be obeyed as it should be, and God's promises (given through the prophets) to receive fulfilment
Yes it can because of Romans 10:4
The promotion of
the law is for righteousness. Otherwise it can't be said there is violation. Romans says this is the purpose of
the law in at least 2 places. Even Isa says this in 63:17. So it isn't a mere concoction of Paul.
The law didn't create sin either because sin was before
the law (Rom 5:13). In fact
the law came about because of sin (Gal 3:19).
A favorite half verse (I JN 3:4b) often quoted to prove all sin is only a violation of
the law is false. The verse plainly states sin is
also a transgression of
the law. This means that isn't dependent on
the law.
Bugkiller
Why did Paul use it in the way he did?
