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You can't even find that. John 1:10 calls on the Lord's Day, that John experienced when he was in the Spirit, as opposed to the flesh: "I was in the Spirit on the Lords Day". Beyond this, the context is filled with revelations that are not of the flesh. When the inspired author chooses to use the term "Lord's Day", I am forced to accept what he wrote instead of looking for a cycle that isn't even apparent.
I find no evidence that John was referring to either Sunday or Sabbath, and I was the first to respond to this thread to complain that you crafted questions that I couldn't answer accurately.
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The usual argument that John meant Sunday when he said Lord's Day is the resurrection. The problem with that argument is the sequence of Passover, Unleavened Bread, and First Fruits floated each year from day to day. One year firstfruits (resurrection) might be on Sunday, the next year on Sabbath, and the following year on Wednesday.
John would not have made that "usual argument"; he would not identify Sunday, or Sabbath, for a resurrection argument. It floated and was not fixed in John's time.
SO, if it was a Sunday, there is a different reason to use the term "Lord's Day"; to wit, Pentecost was always on a Sunday. The Spirit was poured out, the Lord spoke, like a trumpet.
OTOH, there is no reason to think John had referred to the Sabbath. He simply would have said that (seventh day) (as the post above also mentions).
NOW, earlier in the thread, someone mentioned the "day as 1000 years" is the Lord's Day. Evidently there was that tradition in the early church also (Barnabas).
So, there could have been two views. One was Lord's Day was Sunday, but not because of resurrection, which John would not have "froze" to an Easter, like Rome did, but rather because of Pentecost. Two was Lord's Day referred to the 1000 years as a Day.
So, there is no reason to identify Lord's Day as Sabbath or resurrection Sunday.