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The Lord's day.

The Lord' s day is Sunday.

  • There is biblical evidence that Sunday is the Lord's day.

  • There is no biblical evidence that Sunday is the Lord's day.

  • I don't care if Sunday is the Lord's day or not.


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Elder 111

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They are graft into nothing as Christians but were inferior to Israel according to the flesh. When there are those that are "broken off" only means they will not be allowed into the land when the future Kingdom becomes a reality.

Jesus gave the Gentiles a glimmer of hope by including them into the nation as proselytes. To us? In OUR calling? He is not our King. He is to be the King of Israel. He is the Saviour of our body.
:confused:
Excuse me!
 
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Elder 111

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In both this thread and the 'why not Jesus?' thread you have revealed an obsession with the sabbath, even though both threads were set up as polls and neither one of them is relevant to the sabbath. Repeating an error is just another illustration of this obsession.
I am obsessed, but only with doing God's will and knowing His word.
I have been told that Rev 1;10 is making reference to Sunday and the only thing I can find in the bible to call the Lord's day is the Sabbath.
I am obsessed with seeing the people of God rightfully understand His letter to all mankind. It is our only safeguard against deception.
 
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VictorC

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I am obsessed, but only with doing God's will and knowing His word.

For someone who has shown that he knows very little about the sabbath and the covenant that contained it, this claim of knowing God's Word comes across as callous at best. But then, this is a discussion forum, where many of us come to knock ideas around and gain insight from others.

I have been told that Rev 1;10 is making reference to Sunday and the only thing I can find in the bible to call the Lord's day is the Sabbath.

You can't even find that. John 1:10 calls on the Lord's Day, that John experienced when he was in the Spirit, as opposed to the flesh: "I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s Day". Beyond this, the context is filled with revelations that are not of the flesh. When the inspired author chooses to use the term "Lord's Day", I am forced to accept what he wrote instead of looking for a cycle that isn't even apparent.

I find no evidence that John was referring to either Sunday or Sabbath, and I was the first to respond to this thread to complain that you crafted questions that I couldn't answer accurately.

I am obsessed with seeing the people of God rightfully understand His letter to all mankind. It is our only safeguard against deception.

You're obsessed with a central tenet of Judaism, and your statement comes across as someone who has dismissed Christians as foreign to 'the people of God'.
 
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What is your point? Romans was written by the same Paul in 56-57 AD. Obviously what Paul said in Romans is not contradicted in Ephesians. Our salvation was never dependent on the Jews, they were Just the messengers as the pastor or the priest.
Salvation for the Jews and Gentiles are all through Jesus. God's requirements are the same for Jews and Gentiles. The ten commandments are for Jews and Gentiles, and I noticed that the Sabbath is in the ten.
Where do you get this idea the Ten Commandments are for the Gentiles?
 
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You are in agreement with the Scripture Elder 111, in that the Bible gives no evidence, in any location, text or precept, that Sunday is the day referred to as "the Lord's day".

There is no one that can give evidence that Sunday is "the Lord's Day" of Revelation 1:10, for it is simply non existant.

The context itself is in the historical, and Scriptural. The Lord's Day was, is and shall be The Seventh Day The Sabbath Of The Lord Thy God, as found throughout the Bible, from Genesis to Revelation.
That's weird. My Bible does. Sorry about yours. I thought we had different Bibles.
 
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You are in agreement with the Scripture Elder 111, in that the Bible gives no evidence, in any location, text or precept, that Sunday is the day referred to as "the Lord's day".

There is no one that can give evidence that Sunday is "the Lord's Day" of Revelation 1:10, for it is simply non existant.

The context itself is in the historical, and Scriptural. The Lord's Day was, is and shall be The Seventh Day The Sabbath Of The Lord Thy God, as found throughout the Bible, from Genesis to Revelation.
Now there's an interesting moniker. What does it mean? Does it mean little flower god(s)?

Well welcome to GT.
 
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Bob Carabbio

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Re: Rom 14, there's no reason to believe that there's any difference whatsoever in "Days".

But the simple fact is that the MAJORITY of the CHURCH gathers in their Buildings on Sunday, so obviously If you're going to get together with the CHURCH, you're going to have to go when they're there.

If you want to get together with the portion of the church that's has a "Sabbaterian Hangup", then show up on Saturday.

Here in the Dallas Area, the Cowboy Churches come together on Sunday AND Monday (for those who are busy in Sunday).

One day's as good as another.

CHurch
 
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They are graft into nothing as Christians but were inferior to Israel according to the flesh. When there are those that are "broken off" only means they will not be allowed into the land when the future Kingdom becomes a reality.

Jesus gave the Gentiles a glimmer of hope by including them into the nation as proselytes. To us? In OUR calling? He is not our King. He is to be the King of Israel. He is the Saviour of our body.
:confused: I could comment but....
 
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Tell me, did you ever notice that the Sabbath was not coupled with stoning, passover, atonement, or dietary laws or any of the other civil laws. The Sabbath was written by God's own hand with the other commands such as take not the Lord's name in vain, thou shall have no other gods, and not to worship idols. It was at the top of the list with those mentioned.
Explain why that should be out and not the others. Did God a mistake in where He placed it? Do we now have to correct the mistake God made?
You assume we're still under the covenant made with Israel while God promised something else not according to the covenant He made with their fathers and Jesus (also God) testified this is so.
 
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I am obsessed, but only with doing God's will and knowing His word.
I have been told that Rev 1;10 is making reference to Sunday and the only thing I can find in the bible to call the Lord's day is the Sabbath.
I am obsessed with seeing the people of God rightfully understand His letter to all mankind. It is our only safeguard against deception.
Probably because you simply won't accept it. My guess is the reason is it goes against your agenda.
 
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For someone who has shown that he knows very little about the sabbath and the covenant that contained it, this claim of knowing God's Word comes across as callous at best. But then, this is a discussion forum, where many of us come to knock ideas around and gain insight from others.



You can't even find that. John 1:10 calls on the Lord's Day, that John experienced when he was in the Spirit, as opposed to the flesh: "I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s Day". Beyond this, the context is filled with revelations that are not of the flesh. When the inspired author chooses to use the term "Lord's Day", I am forced to accept what he wrote instead of looking for a cycle that isn't even apparent.

I find no evidence that John was referring to either Sunday or Sabbath, and I was the first to respond to this thread to complain that you crafted questions that I couldn't answer accurately.



You're obsessed with a central tenet of Judaism, and your statement comes across as someone who has dismissed Christians as foreign to 'the people of God'.
I'd love to see Elder 111's reason John suddenly calls the Sabbath the Lord's Day while everywhere else when he talks about the 7th day Sabbath he uses the word Sabbath.
 
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Standing Up

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-snip-



You can't even find that. John 1:10 calls on the Lord's Day, that John experienced when he was in the Spirit, as opposed to the flesh: "I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s Day". Beyond this, the context is filled with revelations that are not of the flesh. When the inspired author chooses to use the term "Lord's Day", I am forced to accept what he wrote instead of looking for a cycle that isn't even apparent.

I find no evidence that John was referring to either Sunday or Sabbath, and I was the first to respond to this thread to complain that you crafted questions that I couldn't answer accurately.

-snip-

The usual argument that John meant Sunday when he said Lord's Day is the resurrection. The problem with that argument is the sequence of Passover, Unleavened Bread, and First Fruits floated each year from day to day. One year firstfruits (resurrection) might be on Sunday, the next year on Sabbath, and the following year on Wednesday.

John would not have made that "usual argument"; he would not identify Sunday, or Sabbath, for a resurrection argument. It floated and was not fixed in John's time.

SO, if it was a Sunday, there is a different reason to use the term "Lord's Day"; to wit, Pentecost was always on a Sunday. The Spirit was poured out, the Lord spoke, like a trumpet.

OTOH, there is no reason to think John had referred to the Sabbath. He simply would have said that (seventh day) (as the post above also mentions).

NOW, earlier in the thread, someone mentioned the "day as 1000 years" is the Lord's Day. Evidently there was that tradition in the early church also (Barnabas).

So, there could have been two views. One was Lord's Day was Sunday, but not because of resurrection, which John would not have "froze" to an Easter, like Rome did, but rather because of Pentecost. Two was Lord's Day referred to the 1000 years as a Day.

So, there is no reason to identify Lord's Day as Sabbath or resurrection Sunday.
 
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VictorC

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The usual argument that John meant Sunday when he said Lord's Day is the resurrection. The problem with that argument is the sequence of Passover, Unleavened Bread, and First Fruits floated each year from day to day. One year firstfruits (resurrection) might be on Sunday, the next year on Sabbath, and the following year on Wednesday.

Well, let's explore a similar thought that I had. Several people have bantered on about what the Lord's Day might refer to, and some of the disparity among the participants comes from a difference in perspective - where they place their focus.

But what is the most important Day that has meaning for us? The Day that the Lord has made!
From Psalm 118:

21 I will praise You,
For You have answered me,
And have become my salvation.
22 The stone which the builders rejected
Has become the chief cornerstone.
23 This was the Lord’s doing;
It is marvelous in our eyes.
24 This is the day the Lord has made;
We will rejoice and be glad in it.


For those of us who aren't fixated on periodic cycles, we will look at this passage and see a singular event in history: The resurrection of our Lord and Saviour: "we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life" (Romans 5:10)

For those looking for a cycle, the intuitive day fulfilled in the Law is the Feast of First Fruits, the day of His resurrection following an annual cycle.
On a weekly cycle, it was indeed a random chance that it happened on a Sunday.
I see the singular event that is the most important Day, and it is never going to be repeated nor added to.

Caveat: I don't see any reason to attribute John's reference to any of these. He said "the Lord's Day", and what he wrote is fine with me. I perceive a singular event rather than any allusion to a cycle.

John would not have made that "usual argument"; he would not identify Sunday, or Sabbath, for a resurrection argument. It floated and was not fixed in John's time.

SO, if it was a Sunday, there is a different reason to use the term "Lord's Day"; to wit, Pentecost was always on a Sunday. The Spirit was poured out, the Lord spoke, like a trumpet.

OTOH, there is no reason to think John had referred to the Sabbath. He simply would have said that (seventh day) (as the post above also mentions).

NOW, earlier in the thread, someone mentioned the "day as 1000 years" is the Lord's Day. Evidently there was that tradition in the early church also (Barnabas).

So, there could have been two views. One was Lord's Day was Sunday, but not because of resurrection, which John would not have "froze" to an Easter, like Rome did, but rather because of Pentecost. Two was Lord's Day referred to the 1000 years as a Day.

So, there is no reason to identify Lord's Day as Sabbath or resurrection Sunday.

OTOH, we're watching a ping-pong game based on sheer speculation. What John wrote in the context he said it happened is left behind when speculation inserts texts that bear no relation.
 
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Standing Up

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Well, let's explore a similar thought that I had. Several people have bantered on about what the Lord's Day might refer to, and some of the disparity among the participants comes from a difference in perspective - where they place their focus.

But what is the most important Day that has meaning for us? The Day that the Lord has made!
From Psalm 118:

21 I will praise You,
For You have answered me,
And have become my salvation.
22 The stone which the builders rejected
Has become the chief cornerstone.
23 This was the Lord’s doing;
It is marvelous in our eyes.
24 This is the day the Lord has made;
We will rejoice and be glad in it.

For those of us who aren't fixated on periodic cycles, we will look at this passage and see a singular event in history: The resurrection of our Lord and Saviour: "we were reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved by His life" (Romans 5:10)

For those looking for a cycle, the intuitive day fulfilled in the Law is the Feast of First Fruits, the day of His resurrection following an annual cycle.
On a weekly cycle, it was indeed a random chance that it happened on a Sunday.
I see the singular event that is the most important Day, and it is never going to be repeated nor added to.

Caveat: I don't see any reason to attribute John's reference to any of these. He said "the Lord's Day", and what he wrote is fine with me. I perceive a singular event rather than any allusion to a cycle.



OTOH, we're watching a ping-pong game based on sheer speculation. What John wrote in the context he said it happened is left behind when speculation inserts texts that bear no relation.

Yes, I would exclude any reference to Sunday based on Easter ideas. I would also reject any reference to Sabbath, since John could easily have said as much.

Is the Lord's Day everyday? Could be, but surely there was a specific day for John that the vision took place. "I was in the Spirit on the Lord's Day" could simply be "I was in the Spirit today", but like Sabbath or Sunday, he could have easily mentioned that specific day. So, to what was he referring? Something mystical?

Is the Lord's Day a reference to 1000 year day? Don't see how that would fit into the specific vision, unless one wants to tie it to the church age, but we know it has lasted 2000 years now.

So, I would still tend to see Lord's Day as a reference to one particular Pentecost. Maybe 40 years after the "first" one in Jerusalem. 40 being a trial period.
 
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By Faith Alone

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Excuse me!

All are the same in Christ. No difference. They were graft in contrary to nature because they were not Hebrew. Israel was God's favored nation at the time. Being "broken off" does not mean losing salvation but not being allowed into the diaspensational blessings promised to Israel. The New Covenant in the land.. The Olive tree in relationship to the Gentiles shows inferiority. God's focus was on Israel from their beginning until Acts 28. Read it. Then go to Ephesians and Colossians. New calling. Israel set aside as favored nation on a temporary basis. Lo-Ammi (Hosea 1:9)

"I have not come but to the lost sheep of the House of Israel".

Ring a bell?
 
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