Ro 3:25-26 has been in Scripture for 2,000 years.
Perhaps you would like to answer the questions on it.
...
For there is no distinction, since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; they are now justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood, effective through faith. He did this to show his righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed; it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and that he justifies the one who has faith in Jesus. (Romans 3:22-26)
Exactly how does that passage teach penal substitutionary atonement?
I do not see it.
Jesus' death is described as a sacrifice for atonement but
not as receiving divine punishment for sins nor as receiving God's wrath.
Since
Jesus willingly went to the cross out of love for humanity there seems to be no support for PSA in the passage.
Willingly going to the cross has no bearing on "PSA."
Provide answers to the questions below on Ro 3:25-26 which are consistent with the text and the rest of Scripture, then we'll go from there.
"God presented Jesus as a sacrifice of propitiation (atonement) (4,5) through faith in his blood (6).
He did this to demonstrate his justice (3), because in his forbearance he had passed over (1,2)
(left unpunished) the sins committed beforehand (OT)--he did it to demonstrate his justice (3)
at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies (7)." (Ro 3:25-26)
The words that you put in brackets are insertions not present in the text of sacred scripture. If you intend them to be alternative translation you need not bother. If you prefer "propitiation" from the ESV to "sacrifice of atonement" from the NRSV that's okay.
The words in brackets are the Greek meanings of the text, which is the language of the text.
1) What did God "pass over" the sins committed beforehand (OT)?
This is not easy to decipher - what do you intend it to mean?
It means what the text you presented means in
"in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed;"
Did God pass over (withhold) his blessings, grace, provision, punishment, penalty, wrath, etc?
Exactly what did he withhold on the sins of the OT until the sacrifice of Jesus?
2) The "what passed over" consisted precisely of?
"the sins previously committed" is what the passage says. Was your question rhetorical?
The answer to this question is the same as the answer to the question above it.
3) How did the "what passed over" demonstrate God's justice?
It demonstrated that God is righteous. This is also rhetorical is it not?
You did not answer the question:
How did it demonstrate God's justice?
4) For what did Jesus' sacrificial death atone?
Atonement is not 'for something' it is 'to heal a breach'.
You do understand that, don't you?
Posturing is a poor substitute for substantive response.
The Greek meaning of atonement (
hilasterion) is
propitiation, reparation,
amends for.
The passage is about Jesus expiatory death as atonement to heal the broken relationship between humankind and God.
You are not reckoning with the text.
That is such vacuous human thinking, with no basis in Scripture.
Where do you find any mention of "healing a broken relationship"?
If by "broken relationship," you mean that we are
born as (Eph 2:3) and
remain God's
enemies (Ro 5:10)
until our sin is forgiven by faith in the blood of Jesus (Ro 3:25), that is not a "broken relationship,"
that is God laying down his
arms against us and declaring us no longer his
enemies.
There was
no relationship with God prior to God laying down his arms against us, for we were
born his enemies, by our very
nature objects of his wrath (Eph 2:3). That's not relationship, that's war.
5) How does Jesus' sacrificial death atone (make reparation, amends) for it?
It doesn't make reparation.
Jesus' sacrificial death is an offering of love and praise offered to God to wipe away sins and the offence that sins give to God.
Again, you do not reckon with the text, presenting an answer even more vacuous than the answer before.
Just
how does Christ's
brutal death on the cross wipe away sin and its offence to God?
Why would God regard his
brutal death as wiping sin away?
Why not regard healing all the lepers in Israel, or some other miracles as an offering of love and praise to God to wipe away sin?
6) What is the connection between his atonement and my faith in it (his blood)?
The atonement is made effective through faith. Each of the faithful who is united to Christ in baptism and faith within the body (which is the church) is promised cleansing from sins and eternal life in union with Jesus Christ.
Agreed.
7) How is God both just and the one who justifies?
Another rhetorical question? God is righteous by nature and by definition.
You betray your lack of understanding of the text with all your "rhetorical question" responses.
You did not answer the question
how Jesus sacrifice shows God to be both
just and the one who
justifies.
You did not answer questions 1), 2), 3), 4), 5), 7).
You've got more homework to do.
You do not see penal substitutionary atonement in Ro 3:25-26 because you do not realty understand Ro 3:25-26.
< BUMP >