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crimsonleaf
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Okekoki - did not take long.
If you followed this thread you will see two answers in response to a standard Calvinist straw-man deflection.
Originally Posted by cygnusx1
Precisely !
There seem to be only two answers :
1. God willingly permitted evil with much suffering to Himself in order to overthrow it .
2. God doesn't permit evil , it just happens ! He has no control or say over the future , such is Gods nature that He must take risks in order to be Love ....
I know which one is scriptural .
arrow Okekoki - did not take long.
If you followed this thread you will see two answers in response to a standard Calvinist straw-man deflection.
Originally Posted by cygnusx1
Precisely !
There seem to be only two answers :
1. God willingly permitted evil with much suffering to Himself in order to overthrow it .
2. God doesn't permit evil , it just happens ! He has no control or say over the future , such is Gods nature that He must take risks in order to be Love ....
I know which one is scriptural .
Originally Posted by JackSparrow
As you know, I am not a Calvinist,. I go with option 1 - mostly. I do not believe any non calvinist will go with option 2 unless they are nuts (IMO).
God willingly permitted evil with much suffering to himself, Why ? Why in order to overthrow it if he could of just of not permitted it in the first place.
I rather think along the line of God permitted man some free will ( I know you will hate this ). Adam had two options sin or not sin. He did not have the option of be more good or sinless. Why did God permit Adam to make a wrong choice.
One answer would be he did not want robots but genuine love.
Another would be that it was the only way God could reveal more of himself to man. How could God show his all powerfulness if man never disobeyed ?
So I believe God willingly permitted evil with much suffering to Himself. He did not decree evil. As for the reasons, I expect there are more.
Thanks. This is from the Weep Over Jerusalem thread, so I'm concerned about exactly what the question is you're both attempting to answer, because it seems to be about permitting evil which is not the question I'm asking - and you talk about "standard Calvinist straw-man deflection".
Let me state my question in a different way, hopefully that won't allow you to answer a different one:
God created some men in the certain knowledge that they'd be condemned - yes or no?
He could have chosen to create only those he knew would use their free will to believe (I'm using your terminology here) - yes or no?
There will be a supplementary question once you've answered these two, as you seem to have taken over from Arcoe. It may then segue with your answer above depending on which way you go.
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