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Elioenai26
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... or objectively moral. You are the one claiming to be objectively morally flawless.
So the question remains: Is it immoral to eat non-kosher?
A person cannot be objectively moral. You are confusing the term and its usage. In the context in which you use "objectively moral" it simply means moral or right independent of people's opinions. But these terms "moral" and "right" in this context are used to denote values or ideas not persons.
I answered your question. But I will ask you one. Who were the dietary laws given to, and when were they given, how were they given, where were they given, and why were they given, and who gave them?
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