You then venture to say rape is morally wrong. But that says nothing of whether or not the men were objectively wrong. If you are to remain true to your relativism, then you must see these men's acts as what they prefer, and since as you say, subjective preference is ALL THAT MORALITY IS, then you cannot say these men did anything objectively wrong.
Except if we are objectivists the rapist's acts are still his "preference." In other words, he clearly believes that what he is doing is "okay", and is going to commit the crime anyway. If we are objectivists we still condemn him the same way. If we are objectivists the results are still the same, he is still a rapist, he has still committed a crime, and will hopefully be punished.
So if I say something is subjectively wrong, or I say something is objectively wrong, what difference does it objectively/subjectively make? You say being an objectivist gives you more power, but it is the power to do exactly the same thing, the same way.
Still awaiting your responses to my growing number of questions...
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