And in that lies the dilemna .. what you have stated is the very reason Messianic Jews never see what Messianic Judaism is all about.
And it is the reason for the controversy and contentions between both parties. One says .. can to.. and the other says... can not..
Wouldn't say, IMHO, that it's the main reason why Messianic Jews actually see Messianic Judaism for what it is as much as it is an issue of not having clarity as to the actual evolution of Messianic Judaism/all that may've been included. Nothing wrong with sub-groups within a larger camp having differing stances, provided that they choose to see that it's a matter of "
can" if they wish.
Those who wish to live as they think is necessary according to OT Torah/Mosaic code are free to do so, whereas others who feel that they do not need to according to Torah are free to do so. The moment either side begins saying "You HAVE to do it like me to really love the Lord", that's when it becomes a problem.
We can point to scripture that shows that Yeshua did indicate to the Gentile woman that we all are to worship Him in spirit and in truth.
John 4: 22Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews. 23But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him. 24God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.
It doesn't mean that Jews [whether Christian or Judaism in theology] are going to agree.. One thing is for sure both Jews of either party are dogmatic that we, Messianics Judaism, can not worship Yeshua style but that is their bias.
Pretty much....and with what occurred in John 4 is rather fascinating when considering the fact that Samaritans, with their own version of the Penteteuch and Judaic practices that were distinct, were often considered to be vastly differing from the Jews...to the point of essentially being an entirely differing religion altogether. But they didn't stop being Samaritans after the revelation of Messiah.
In the Gospel of John when the Samaritan woman believed in Jesus, she immediately went back to her community, told them what He had done for her, and led many others to Jesus (John 4.39-42). Notice that the woman is referred to as a Samaritan throughout the entire passage and process. Samaritans in first century Palestine were viewed as heretical half-breed Jews. They even hand their own religious practices and holy sights. They and the Jews were enemies, yet in all of Jesus’ interactions with her he never asked her to leave her religion – even though her spiritual identity has been transformed. Why?
We see a similar story in Jesus’ interaction with the Gerasene demoniac in Mark 5. After Jesus healed the demoniac he begged Jesus to let him enter his boat and follow him. Surprisingly, Jesus said NO! Jesus wouldn’t let the man follow him. Instead, he sent him away, back to his homeland. Why?
In both of these Biblical scenes the ‘why?’ question is answered in the second half of the story. With the Samaritan woman we see her go back to her village and proclaim the good news of Jesus with everyone she encounters. As the result many Samaritans come to believe in Jesus (John 4:39). Her witness was not based on her conversion to ‘Christianity,’ it was centered on her life changing encounter with Jesus.
With the Gerasene demoniac a similar thing occurs. As Jesus sent him away he said, “Go home to your own people and tell them how much the Lord has done for you, and how he has had mercy on you.” (Mark 5:19). The next time Jesus came to the region, there were some 4,000 others waiting to hear from Him (Mark 8.1). Surely this man played a key role in creating this second scene by his faithful witness.
In both stories one profound encounter with Jesus was enough preparation to proclaim the good news of the kingdom. Samaritans remained Samaritan, Gentiles remained Gentile, and Jews remained Jewish. The central question was not “What is your religion?” but “Who do you say that Jesus is?”
All parties believe that they are following Jesus as he intends them to.
The difference is what cause the controversies and contentions. It can not be resolved but by conviction and transformation. It can not be resolved in subforums and reporting each other. Those of us who came from there to here would like to have a peaceful corner to explore this faith. Those who want to drag there to here are trying to bring stuff we are trying to get away from.
I agree with you, though I'd also say that the reality of the situation is that discussing things in terms of "we" can be misleading at times if indicating that there's only one side who does so. FOr BOTH sides have had others bring "there to here" in their own viewpoints and have had frustration with running into things they were trying to either get away from---or were hoping to run into others who'd be able to resolve them in a peaceful manner, regardless of where they may've fallen into.
We see it this way.... This is the instruction for Gentiles... to be taught Torah every sabbath day..
Acts 15:21-23
King James Version (KJV)
21For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
On the rest of Acts 15:
Acts 15:15-24
15 The words of the prophets are in agreement with this, as it is written:
16 “‘After this I will return
and rebuild David’s fallen tent.
Its ruins I will rebuild,
and I will restore it,
17 that the rest of mankind may seek the Lord,
even all the Gentiles who bear my name,
says the Lord, who does these things’
[a]—
18 things known from long ago.
[b]
19 “It is my judgment, therefore, that we should not make it difficult for the Gentiles who are turning to God.
20 Instead we should write to them, telling them to abstain from food polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from the meat of strangled animals and from blood.
21 For the law of Moses has been preached in every city from the earliest times and is read in the synagogues on every Sabbath.”
Indeed, the Law of Moses was being taught--though the reasons why Gentiles were included in the statement can take on a myriad of meanings. I appreciate how
One commentator said the following:
In 15:15-17, James said that the prophets (the Septuagint version of Amos 9:12) agreed with what God was doing. "Luke does not have James declare that `this thing'...agrees...with the prophets, so that the scripture text is the measure of how God can work, but the opposite: the working of God precedes the perception of the text's agreement." God will rebuild David's fallen tent —- a reference to Christ and/or his kingdom —- so the remnant of men, including gentiles who have God's name, may seek him. This quote from Amos helps "bring out more clearly the way in which the progress of the church is in accordance with the Old Testament prophecies."
By quoting Amos, James puts the gentile mission into a new age. As Marshall says, "God is doing something new in raising up the church; it is an event of the last days, and therefore the old rules of the Jewish religion no longer apply." This prophecy had been known for ages, James said (15:18), so gentile converts should be no surprise nor cause for controversy.
Therefore, said James, I decide not to harass the gentiles (15:19). "James characterizes the Pharisees' demands as a form of harassment of the Gentiles that he wants stopped."10 Because God is doing this, James said, we should not put obstacles in the way of the gentiles who are turning to God.
In contrast to harassment, James decided to tell the gentiles to abstain from four things (to be discussed in detail below). The four restrictions are presented as minimal requests, as small, easy-to-comply-with requirements —- perhaps things the gentiles in Antioch were already doing. As Johnson says, "According to Luke's presentation...the prohibitions are neither new to these Gentile converts nor a burden to them. This implies that they...would have already been observing them." As Dunn notes in a similar setting, "Many of these Gentiles were sufficiently ready to conform to Jewish practices as to make possible regular social intercourse, including at least guest friendship and table-fellowship."
Why these four restrictions? Because Moses is preached in every city (15:21). However, that's not the only reason for the decree. The "therefore" at the beginning of 15:19 indicates that 15:14-18 is also a reason for the decree. The logical sequence is this: "A; therefore B, because of C." C (15:21) is relevant because it explains how B (15:19-20) should be a consequence of A (15:14-18).
A: God is doing this work. B: Therefore we need a decree. C: Because Moses is preached in synagogues. The decree is needed not only because God is calling gentiles but also because Moses is being preached in synagogues. The sequence implies a contrast between the decree and the preaching of Moses, as has already been implied in 15:5.
The thought is this: Because God is doing this work (15:14-17), and because we do not want to hinder his work (15:19), we should therefore give gentile converts this decree (15:20) because much stricter rules are being preached in the synagogues (15:21). Pharisaic rules are too strict for gentile Christians, but because those rules are being taught in every city, we need to write a decree to let all gentiles believers know that they don't have to keep the laws of Moses. James is advocating a contrast, not just a pared-down version of synagogue rules.
The "instead" that begins 15:20 also supports this. We do not want to harass the gentiles, James said. Instead, we should write an easy decree, because Moses is widely preached. This implies that synagogue preaching (the laws of Moses as interpreted by Pharisees) was a harassment for gentile Christians. The decree was needed because there was a conflict between God's work and Pharisaic teaching. The decree is needed to counteract the harassing rules of the Pharisees.
This interpretation is further supported when we analyze the audience of the synagogue preaching. Some commentators have assumed (without analysis) that James is referring to preaching that gentiles were hearing in the synagogues. But gentiles who attended synagogues had already changed their behavior to be acceptable to Jews; they had little or no need for a decree. Moreover, gentiles were coming into the church who did not have a background in the synagogue (11:20). There was a synagogue in Iconium (14:1), but none is mentioned for Lystra or Derbe, but there were disciples in each city, presumably from pagan backgrounds (14:8-22). James' comment in 15:21, if it referred to gentiles who attended synagogues, would fail to address the situation the church was facing. The decree was needed even by gentiles who did not have a background in Judaism —- even by those who lived in cities that may not have had a synagogue (16:1-4).
The thought in 15:21 seems to be that in every city there are Jews who are being instructed in the laws of Moses. James was not encouraging gentiles to go to the synagogues to hear Moses be preached. Throughout the book of Acts, Christ is the one who is preached.
Of course, I don't agree fully with all of their conclusions as it concerns Mosaic Law--but I do agree with them that having the Law of Moses preached/mentioning that prior to writing to the Gentiles does not necessarily mean that it was mention to indicate that Gentiles were meant to hear all of the Mosaic code and gradually learn how to walk in it as many of the Jews sought. And on the issue, it seems scripture ultimately notes how it was Yeshua---not the Law--that could give true justification.
In commenting on Acts 15:21, I appreciate what Messianic Derek Leman noted best on the subject in one of his articles. As
seen here and said there in
Quick Conversation on Acts 15:21 | Messianic Jewish Musings:
I strongly disagree with this interpretation in which people read Acts 15:21 as a verse to reverse the meaning of the whole passage. It is a dishonest reading.
Note that vs. 21 speaks of the reading of Moses in the past tense, not future. James does not say, “For Moses will be read in the synagogue,” so that they will learn. Rather, he says, “For Moses has been read in the synagogue…”
His point concerns something from the past. The thrust of the chapter is that some parts of Torah are not required of gentiles. In vs. 21, James says that something about the history of gentiles hearing Moses in the synagogue affirms the decision that Torah is not completely laid on the gentiles. What could James mean?
The simple and evident answer is this: gentiles have been hearing Moses in synagogue and most have not decided to convert. But now, in Yeshua, it is evident that gentiles are accepted as gentiles, without converting. Therefore, we can expect many gentiles to come into the movement now, since it is clear they do not have to convert to be acceptable to God. What the reading of Moses in the synagogue has not done for gentiles the preaching of the good news of Messiah to gentiles will do.