As I said, you will not find a written wording "obey the law or observe the law, but the intention of those text or combined text by the author is acknowledgment that all men are subject to the law of God, means are under the jurisdiction of the law. Col. 2:16 is not cancelling God's weekly Sabbath, but Israel annual sabbath celebration of feast days. The law for Christians to observe is not the law of Moses but the law of God, His Ten Cs. 1 Tim 1:9,10 does not say that righteous men are not under the jurisdiction of the law, it says that those law is not for the righteous. Why not? Because they already did what the law demands, therefore they are righteous, otherwise they are still law breakers, murderer, etc.
And you're dividing the law. I don't see how because the forbidding of murder is surely one of the 10 Cs. Isn't lying also covered in the 10 Cs? How about stealing? What about a whoremonger? Isn't that adultery? Now who is the law for? Is my reading that bad? Or are you trying to insult me?
Under the law means under condemnation of the law, not under the law means not under condemnation of the law. Christ is the end of the law for law keepers, in order they might reach perfect righteousness through faith in Him. It doesn't says, Christ cancelled the law because of faith.
Where do you get this idea from? It can't possibly be the word under. I can't find any definition that says under means condemnation. Paul says to throw the law out and uses a woman to illustrate. I have ask what part of a woman was Paul talking about? I bet he meant the whole woman and not a part of her. Don't ya just love Paul? I do!!!!
Sure it is, because in chapter 2 all men were brought by Paul under subjection of the law. In Chapter 3, because of their carnal nature, all men (the who world) are under condemnation of the law, and since no man could present righteousness before God, not also by their perfect obedience to the letter which is self righteousness, God gave a way out, a righteousness of Christ to those who believe. This is prepared because they couldn't present it, but once living by faith, they will have the obedience of faith that fulfill the law demands, for the law still demanded righteousness, no matter how you will provide it. The proof of the law existence that demand righteousness, is the law doers will be justified (Rom. 2:13) and The law doers have the right to enter heaven and eat the fruit of life (Rev. 22:14).
Not in the sense you imply. The law was not given to and doesn't apply to the Gentiles or Gentile Christians - Acts 15. Were the Gentiles circumcised already? No! Did they keep the sabbath already? Again No! Paul wasn't talking about converts or proselytes in mentioning the Gentiles in Chapter 2.
What is Paul purpose of admitting that the law exist, just to look at it and doing nothing? That is what he said "the hearers of the law."
Ah you do believe that establish in 31 means the law exists.
If I admit that there is a traffic light on the cross road, should I pretend there is not and keep driving when it is red? If I see there is a bridge connecting two sides of the river, should I pretend not having seen it and take a swim to cross the river instead of walking through the bridge?
In the language of metaphors yes that is what you're trying to do. I'll use the bridge (Jesus). Problem is you will drown and I won't even get wet.
Same, if Paul admit the law exist, shall he pretend there is no law and reject its existence?
Did I say there was no river?
If you study the bible this way, you will never find the truth of the Gospel of Christ.
I don't. So does that mean you do? After all we do oppose each other. Paul says very plainly that one can't have both. You defend
the law so I assume that is what you have chosen. It ain't my problem. It does become a problem when you try to get others to take your view. Truth and grace came by Jesus John 1:17. I also noticed that the law came by Moses. Grace didn't come by Moses or
the law.
Wrong! Paul said if you are really converted people through true repentance, you should live according to the faith, no longer living according to the flesh, but living a life for God. Being justified believer by faith, they surrendered themselves under the grace of God, which teach them to live godly and righteously (Titus 2:11-14) to only one standard of righteousness - His own law written by His own finger - The Ten Cs. Being justified believers walking in the path of righteousness, they are not under the law condemnation, and if they sin, the grace of God and his mercy will forgive their sin if they repent. They remain under grace and not under condemnation, but if they continue in sinning and making grace as a license to sin, then they will come under condemnation. if they remain under grace, which mean, they remain in their walk of faith in the path of righteousness as to the law, sin lost its dominion over them, and they are not under the law condemnation (v.14), but this is not a permit to break the law (v. 15).
Paul doesn't say anything about living according to or by the faith. He does say live by faith.
Living soberly and righteously doesn't imply obligation to
the law. Incidence isn't obedience. I've referenced and quoted from Galatians 5 to no avial.
Rom 7:5,6 - Compares those who lived by the flesh where sins were revealed by the law and brought death, to those mentioned in chapter 6, the true believer living under grace, whom were delivered from the law condemnation, that once held them in death sentence, to serve the law with the newness of the Spirit, with the mind that is the mind of Christ(Rom. 7:25), and no longer in the oldness of the letter, which is legalistic self righteousness.
What does v 5 say? - the motions of sin, which were by
the law... how very interesting. Motions that do what? The word
condemnation isn't in v 6 in my Bible.
What does Paul say the flesh does in verse 25? You already told me what the spirit or soul does.
Paul says nothing about Christian are delivered from an obligation to keep the law.
What sad news. We read different Bibles.