- May 19, 2015
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How come?as I explained: the position that Mary and Joseph married is, due to the breadth of meaning of the Greek words considered on the matter, an extra-Biblical teaching. Ultimately, my argument was an attempt to show that all Churches rely on a tradition for interpretation.
Reve 16:16 And it together-assembling/sun-hgagen <4863> (5627) them into the place, the being called to Hebrew ar-ma-geddwn
Reve 20:8 and he shall be coming out to deceive the nations, the in the four corners of-the land, the gwg <1136> and the ma-gwg <3098>, to-be-together-assembling/sun-agagein <4863> (5629) them into the battle.................
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) I stated that the NT does not explicitly state that Mary and Joseph were married; the Greek term translated as married has several meanings, one of which denotes marriage. In order to interpret the term (or in general, to conclude) that they married, one must rely on a tradition or bias of some sort. Here is what I said: