eclipsenow
Scripture is God's word, Science is God's works
- Dec 17, 2010
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I'm sorry, but how is that any different to literally hundreds - maybe thousands of similar commands and reminders and prophecies - that Jehovah is their God? I mean, how do the 10 Commandments themselves even start?I will deal with the second two questions. The first question, I am not sure of what you are meaning, and it goes off into another direction from Ezekiel 39.
Why is it Jesus Himself speaking in those verses? Because currently the Jews don't accept that Jesus is the Lord their God. When Jesus returns to this earth, they have changed their minds in the middle of the seven years following the Gog/Magog event.
22 So the house of Israel shall know that I am the LORD their God from that day and forward.



Granted - but that doesn't make the "I" in this passage Jesus. It means John is quoting the OT - just as Jesus was when he referred to Abraham - and Stones - and making the stones themselves cry out and acknowledge him. (Us - the pagan Christians who worship him.)And Ezekiel 39:17-20 is nearly identical to the Revelation 19:17-18 verses, at the time of Jesus's return.
I don't see anything to do with Jesus there. This is all easily fulfilled in the return to Palestine under Persia.And when Jesus returns, he will rule the nations (the heathen) with a rod of iron. v21, Jesus had just executed judgment on the heathen who had gathered together to make war on him. His glory set among the nations, i.e. Jesus present here on this earth.
Absolutely horrific imagery! No no no - that's anti-gospel!And when Jesus returns, he will send his angels out to gather the Jews scattered around the world, back to Israel, not leavening one in the nations, v28.
No - in his time, Ezekiel saw Israel returning home as glorifying God.
In Jesus time, he said all would be gathered by angels into his kingdom. Then he spent his earthly ministry describing that kingdom being one of grace, trusting in his death and resurrection, and bringing the mystery of the OT into the light - that both Jew and Gentile would become one kingdom.
Judgement Day.Corresponding to Matthew 24:31. Matthew 24:31 also corresponds to Deuteronomy 30:3-4 (a great chapter regarding the blessing and the curse for Israel, depending on the choices they made).
Sighs. 7 minutes - why is Gog described in the same images as Tyre and Egpyt?Regarding your second question, dating the prophecy of Ezekiel 39. Ezekiel 38 indicates latter times, latter years. And when Ezekiel 39 is completely fulfilled there will not be a single Jew left in the nations.

And you STILL haven't dealt with Genesis and Gog / Magog!
Again:-
So you say, but I see Daniel quoting and CHANGING an event in Genesis.
It means something when a writer does that! Who is the individual, and who is the land again?
What does the bible say?
Well, here's the thing.
It says both. In Genesis, MAGOG is a man.
In Ezekiel, Gog is a man and MAGOG is a country.
Is the bible contradicting itself?
Or is Daniel turning MAGOG the man into a whole evil country to represent something? Because that is the only way to explain why the bible would otherwise literally be 'contradicting' itself. But it's not. Daniel is saying something like "And then that Great Hitler country will be utterly defeated when we go back into the land, and the Nazi shall be gone." Something like that. Making the individual into a country, and bringing in another term for the regime and personifying it.
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