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And that is your opinion.This response is a complete non-sequitur.
The letter 'ayin is NOT a vowel sound and has no place in the Tetragram.
Between 200 BC and 100 AD the Hebrew language changed, but not all at once. We know what the Hebrew vowels were by Hebrew being translated into other languages.
And that is your opinion.
It is hard to teach, those who do not want to learn, it would take them from their chosen path...Then it is the opinion of every published Hebrew grammar and everyone who can read and write in Classical Hebrew. 'Ayin is a voiced glottal stop.
It is not a vowel. To call it a vowel in this context is categorically, unequivocally false. It does not appear in the Tetragrammaton. (The only letters present there are yod, he [x2], and waw/vav). These statements are all verifiable, fundamental facts. Why do you deny fact in order to prop up such obvious fiction? What merit is fiction here? What can this fiction give you that is lacking in these facts?
What can this fiction give you that is lacking in these facts?
Finding a translated Hebrew document before 200 BC would be a problem. Do you know of any?That's what Secunda is. It does not support your assertion. It clearly shows that the theophoric prefix was "y(eh)o-".
History of the Ancient and Modern Hebrew Language By David Steinberg: History of the Hebrew Language by David SteinbergThen it is the opinion of every published Hebrew grammar and everyone who can read and write in Classical Hebrew.
'Ayin is a voiced glottal stop.
It is not a vowel.
To call it a vowel in this context is categorically, unequivocally false.
It does not appear in the Tetragrammaton. (The only letters present there are yod, he [x2], and waw/vav).
These statements are all verifiable, fundamental facts.
Why do you deny fact in order to prop up such obvious fiction? What merit is fiction here? What can this fiction give you that is lacking in these facts?
So, you reject Paul's teachings and virtually large portions of the New Testament? You're not being clever or sophisticated, nor are you going deeper into the word. You're perverting the Gospel of Jesus Christ into a judaized works based gospel.
You're citing scripture verses that I'm very well aware of. What are you saying, that scripture contradicts itself? It doesn't. How is what you're saying any different then what the church in Galatia was doing before the Holy Spirit via Paul ripped into them?
The last two are both /yehoshua/, not what's listed there.
So because some sacred name proponent invented "Yahshua", that makes it a valid short form in English? Can I change it to "Yahsh" and claim it is the new short form in English? On what Biblical or grammatical grounds do you drop the waw?Simply put, Yahshua is the English short form of his name. We know Joshua is a corruption, and that Yah was changed to Jo.
There is no English name Yahshua.Simply put, Yahshua is the English short form of his name. We know Joshua is a corruption, and that Yah was changed to Jo.
Then why do we pronounce it Joshua today with
a short ah sound? Popular names are hard to
change, even if you change the language, as they
did by adding the vowels to Hebrew.
Yahoshua has been around for more than 2000 year. Yahshuah has been around since the 1500's. Yahshua has been around since 1960's.There is no English name Yahshua.
Yahoshua has been around for more than 2000 year. Yahshuah has been around since the 1500's. Yahshua has been around since 1960's.
It shows that Yah was changed to Jah. It also shows Yah endings.Now, explain how this helps your thesis?
There is a reason why there are two forms, and it is an established one.
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