GenemZ
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VNVnation said:Ah, and how interesting. Another reference to the Hebrew words and again it even says "especially idolatry" and yet no one even seems to consider that part of it.
Such sexual perversions were practiced routinely with pagan rituals. So, it was included in especially with an association with idolatry.
Where was 'that part of the law abolished'? So only the part that contains 'male with male' was kept? So then anyone who curses their parent should be put to death, anyone that commits adultery should be put to death, anyone that has sex with a menstruating woman should be exiled? Or was it just that one particular verse kept and the entire rest of Leviticus was 'abolished'? (oh, except bestiality since you agree to keep that one also)
Leviticus 20:9 nasb
"If there is anyone who curses his father or his mother, he shall surely be put to death; he has cursed his father or his mother, his bloodguiltiness is upon him."
When a parent was "cursed." It speaks of practicing pagan witchcraft which was prevalent in the lands around Israel. It was the same word for Balaam when he was to put a curse on the Jews. It was used by God when he referred to "cursing and blessing."
How convienient that the part that was 'abolished' were all the inconvienient parts but those that were kept are the easy ones, the ones that justify certain prejudices.
There are differences in the law. One has to do with civil law. The other had to do with dietary law. Not the same things. Some parts of the law were symolic in nature.
Stealing is still sin. Lying is still sin. Jealousy is still sin. Arrogance is still sin. The dietary law was based upon God wanting the Jews to see themselves as a separated people from the world. When God introduced the Gentiles into his kingdom on equal footing with the Jew, the dietary law was abolished to make this point. (Acts 10:10-19) Apparently, certain parts of the law were symbolic. Just like the lamb without spot and blemish symbolized the death of Christ. Finding certain animals as "filthy" and to be seen as destestable, represented a need for staying away from the degenerate practices of the pagans surrounding Israel.
He still sees adultery as a sin, eh? Then I ask this of you (since you were asking me about bestiality) ... This coming Sunday will you, genez, walk into your Church and demand that every single person who has divorced and remarried beg God's forgiveness and leave their new spouse because they are adulterous and living in sin? Will you or have you done that?
Not my place to do that. And, the blood of Christ covers all sins and when acknowledged to God, are now completely forgiven. Yet, Jesus said we are forgiven, but go and sin no more. God does the disciplining of rebellious believers. He does not need, nor want, my help. All one can do is to teach what the Word says. Then, its between the believer and the Lord. The only time its called for a public disclosure, is when a sin is witnessed by two or three, and it involves those in Church authority over others.
1 Timothy 5:19-21
"Do not entertain an accusation against an elder unless it is brought by two or three witnesses. Those who sin are to be rebuked publicly, so that the others may take warning.
I charge you, in the sight of God and Christ Jesus and the elect angels, to keep these instructions without partiality, and to do nothing out of favoritism."
No, i'm sure you haven't and wouldn't (though hey, you might have! Who am I to know). This is what I mean, it's convienient to make excuses for divorce (and consequently adultery) in spite of the fact that Jesus himself told us we cannot divorce!
We can if there was adultery on one spouses part. But, Jesus never said that there should not be a separation of two who can not get along. They simply can not remarry.
Sad how the things Jesus told us not to do we can rationalize away but the things He didn't mention we hold to as if they were matters of life and death. Bleh, I've said enough.
We entered into a new dispensation in the Church age. God's kingdom was not to be held in isolation (Israel). He no longer had to guarantee the survival of the seed to bring forth the Messiah. The strict civil law was given as to guarantee the survival of the Jewish people so the Messiah could come.
Galatians 3:19a niv
"What, then, was the purpose of the law? It was added because of transgressions until the Seed to whom the promise referred had come."
That is why the Law had to be so strict as to strike fear into the hearts of those who might have been tempted to mix with the wrong seed (Gentiles).
Adultery and homosexuality was a sign of degeneracy. It was a sign of being seduced outside of the system that would lead to finding God's love. God could not allow for the spread of degeneracy throughout Israel if the Messiah was to come through the seed of David. The Law was very severe in sexual sins for that reason!
Adultery and homosexuality was commonplace amongst the heathen nations. God wanted to strike fear in the hearts of the Jews as to not to wander away from his plan. After Jesus came into the world and finished the work he came to accomplish, certain aspects of the law were nailed to the cross in Christ. There is no more death sentence for certain sexual sins. Yet, God's attitude toward such sin was known and established by such severe condemnation in the Law.
Sodom was to "serve as an example" of how God feels towards such actions. God is not firing down fire and brimstone on San Francisco or Provincetown today. But, men are aware of how God thinks about such behavior. That is why he has Sodom to be an example.
2 Peter 2:6 niv
"if he condemned the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah by burning them to ashes, and made them an example of what is going to happen to the ungodly."
God got the word out. He does not need to set another example. Men know how he thinks about such matters. Same goes for the sins prescribing the death penalty in the Law. We know God is not pleased with such things.
Grace and peace, GeneZ
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