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Simple those who are "in Christ" go to heaven those who are not "in Christ" do not.Can I ask exactly who you believe goes to heaven and who doesn't go to heaven? Please
Sorry that is incorrect. Some words may function that way in English but not necessarily in Greek. "Aion" means "eternity" and "aionios" means "eternal, for ever, everlasting"The Greek word is aionios, which is open to interpretation. It is the adjective form of aion which simply means "age". Aionios could simply mean "long-lasting" or "lasting for an age" or "for life". It is true some could translate it as "everlasting", but that's not the only possible meaning.
First you answer your own question. I am not here to be given the third degree. Also, while you are at it please extend me the courtesy of actually addressing the post which you replied to with your first question.Could you define 'in Christ' ? Please
How does Matthew 25:46 fit in your conclusions? If God wants the unrighteous to exist forever He can make it happen. The dead rich man in Hades had some kind of conscious existence.Thinking out loud here. So, not addressed to anyone in particular, yet something for those that think the Bible supports ECT to seriously think about since the Bible is not full of contradictions.
Since the tree of life is obviously connected with living forever, I wonder how those who think ECT is Biblical in regards to humans think humans cast into the LOF are going to have access to the tree of life so that they too can live forever in order to be tortured forever?
Genesis 3:22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:
It says it there in black and white, that it is not possible to live forever unless one eats from the tree of life. Just one time, though? Eat from it just one time, thus become an instant immortal? In light of the following that does not seem likely. But even if it involves eating from it just one time, thus becoming an instant immortal, nowhere in Revelation does it ever say the lost get to eat from it.
Revelation 2:7 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God.
Revelation 22:2 In the midst of the street of it, and on either side of the river, was there the tree of life, which bare twelve manner of fruits, and yielded her fruit every month: and the leaves of the tree were for the healing of the nations.
Revelation 22:14 Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city.
Which one of these passages should we assume is including the lost getting right to the tree of life? Revelation 2:7 indicates the tree of life is in the midst of the paradise of God, where Revelation 22:2 then tells us is meaning in the new Jerusalem in the new heavens and new earth. Take note what else Revelation 22:2 tells us---there the tree of life, which bare twelve manner of fruits, and yielded her fruit every month---and that this is involving context having to do with eternity. Which then obviously means since there is no end to eternity, this is meaning forever when it says---which bare twelve manner of fruits, and yielded her fruit every month.
But the lost are somehow going to be tortured forever even though they can't do the following at any time---put forth their hand, and take of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever? No wonder we are told the wages of sin is death not eternal life. No wonder Jesus told us that God will destroy both body and soul in hell. No wonder we are told in Revelation 20, in regards to humans cast into the LOF, it is the 2nd death.
But let's just contradict what Genesis 3:22 declares, that in order to live forever, one has to first take of the tree of life, and eat, in order to live for ever. And let's ignore that the tree of life is still relevant in eternity and that none of the lost cast into the LOF could possibly have access to it in order to live forever so that they can be tortured forever. Whatever the tree of life is, whether a literal tree or something else, it is obviously impossible to live forever unless one has access to it and can eat from it. Unless one wants to propose that God flat out lied to us in Genesis 3:22. If He lied to us per that verse, why trust anything He says after that?
The Kingdom is multi-faceted. It is a place both possible in the here and now on a small scale and in the future as a new world. It is also a government, not of man but the Kingdom/government of God, not of man and what we see around us. Most importantly in the now and future it is a way of life as taught by Jesus, a way (The Way) that puts the will of God ahead of the will of man, and that will is we love all as self rather then the contrary ways of man that does the opposite.See, this would make the most sense to me. I will probably get absolutely stomped on for this but personally I believe 'the kingdom of heaven' is within you and is something you can unlock.
Gen 3:22 does not say "that it is not possible to live forever unless one eats from the tree of life."***
Since the tree of life is obviously connected with living forever, I wonder how those who think ECT is Biblical in regards to humans think humans cast into the LOF are going to have access to the tree of life so that they too can live forever in order to be tortured forever?
Genesis 3:22 And the LORD God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and take also of the tree of life, and eat, and live for ever:
It says it there in black and white, that it is not possible to live forever unless one eats from the tree of life. Just one time, though? Eat from it just one time, thus become an instant immortal? In light of the following that does not seem likely. But even if it involves eating from it just one time, thus becoming an instant immortal, nowhere in Revelation does it ever say the lost get to eat from it.
***
Could you define 'in Christ' ? Please
EOB Matthew:25:46 When he will answer them, saying: ‘Amen, I tell you: as much as you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to me.’ 46 These [ones on the left vs. 41] will go away into eternal [αἰώνιος/aionios] punishment, [κόλασις/kolasis] but the righteous into eternal [αἰώνιος/aionios] life.”[EOB, p. 96]It should be noted that any quote of a Greek document depends of the word κόλασις which means chastisement. Chastisement is not permanent or everlasting if it doesn't correct.
You falsely claim there are native speakers of a dead language. If that is so, I wonder what they think of the errors in Mounces basic grammar book, and others.EOB Matthew:25:46 When he will answer them, saying: ‘Amen, I tell you: as much as you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to me.’ 46 These [ones on the left vs. 41] will go away into eternal [αἰώνιος/aionios] punishment, [κόλασις/kolasis] but the righteous into eternal [αἰώνιος/aionios] life.”[EOB, p. 96]
…..Greek has been the language of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church since its inception, 2000 years ago +/-. Note, the native Greek speaking Eastern Orthodox Greek scholars, translators of the EOB, linked below, translated “aionios,” in Matt 25:46, as “eternal,” NOT “age.”
…..I doubt there is anyone better qualified than the team of native Greek speaking scholars, translators of the Eastern Greek Orthodox Bible [EOB], quoted above and below, to know the correct translation of the Greek in the N.T.
Link to EOB online:
Outline of Biblical Usage [?]The New Testament ( The Eastern-Greek Orthodox Bible) : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive
The Greek word “kolasis” occurs only twice in the N.T., 1st occurrence Matt 25:46, above, and 2nd occurrence 1 John 4:18., below.
EOB 1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear, because fear is connected with punishment.[κόλασις/kolasis] But the one who fears is not yet perfect in love.[EOB, p. 518]
Go back and read my post I did NOT say they were native speakers of a dead language. Greek has never been a dead language. Greeks have spoken Greek as long as the country has existed. Had you bothered to actually read my post I acknowledged that there have been some changes in Greek but I am quite sure that modern Greek scholars know the meaning of words which may have changed or dropped out of use, just as English speaking scholars know the meaning of archaic English words such as "truck" which originally meant vegetables.You falsely claim there are native speakers of a dead language. If that is so, I wonder what they think of the errors in Mounces basic grammar book, and others.
Outline of Biblical Usage [?]
The noun aion means eternity. The adjective aionios means eternal. You can verify this by clicking on the link to the EOB in my previous post and look up the occurrences of "eternal." Here is a link to my previous post where I posted the complete definition from BDAG lexicon which represents 120-160 years of combined Greek scholarship.correction, punishment, penalty
Yes, I cherry picked the definitions, but the word is only used twice; and I know for a fact that aion means a permanence, not an everlasting.
In your world then, I guess logically deducing something is not a valid option?Gen 3:22 does not say "that it is not possible to live forever unless one eats from the tree of life."
It represents 50 years of going backward and avoiding definitions used for translating Hellenic writings.BDAG lexicon which represents 120-160 years of combined Greek scholarship.
Actually, aion means permanating, or rather that which makes permanent while aionios means that which is permanent.Sorry that is incorrect. Some words may function that way in English but not necessarily in Greek. "Aion" means "eternity" and "aionios" means "eternal, for ever, everlasting"
Here is the definition of "aion" from Bauer, Danker, Arndt, Gingrich BDAG one of, if not, the most highly accredited Greek lexicons currently available. BDAG represents 120-160 years of combined Greek scholarship. NB. This def. lists 85-90 sources the scholars consulted to determine the meaning.Actually, aion means permanating, or rather that which makes permanent while aionios means that which is permanent.
And you have had how many semester hours of Greek? I'm sure you can find someone, somewhere that agrees with everything you say.It represents 50 years of going backward and avoiding definitions used for translating Hellenic writings.
It has no real improvements on definitions from older lexicons, and concentrates only on Christian literature.Here is the definition of "aion" from Bauer, Danker, Arndt, Gingrich BDAG one of, if not, the most highly accredited Greek lexicons currently available.