1. I never claim that the fact that the Bible refutes OSAS means the Bible is in favor of "works salvation"... did you add that?
If one wants to hold that one's conduct is crucial to one's salvation, then one is not just espousing a saved-and-lost doctrine, but a works-salvation one, too. Is this you?
2. "Forgiveness revoked" does show the saved and then lost condition since the lost are not forgiven... by definition.
But is the story of the Unforgiving Servant
supposed to parallel the condition of a saved person who becomes lost? I don't think so. There is far more to salvation than being merely forgiven of a debt. None of the other things central to the Gospel are offered by Christ in the parable. Most importantly, he says absolutely nothing about his role as the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world, or the need for his listeners to recognize him as their Saviour. No, it seems pretty evident to me that Jesus was speaking in a very Old Covenant way to his audience and not intending any direct parallel to the matter of salvation.
as Paul reminds us "the GOSPEL was preached to Abraham" -- OT Gal 3:8 and "there is only ONE Gospel" Gal 1:6-9
The
full Gospel? Not according to Paul:
8 And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel to Abraham beforehand,
saying, “In you all the nations shall be blessed.”
This is hardly the sum total of the Gospel, but merely a hint of what God would do through Christ. Paul's remark here does nothing as far as I can see to sustain the idea that Christ's Unforgiving Servant parable was meant to convey a saved-and-lost doctrine.
Heb 4 "the Gospel was preached to us just as it was to THEM also" Heb 4:2
There are variant readings of this verse that have spurred significant debate. At the very least, "the Gospel that was preached to them" refers to what had been already discussed at length by the writer of Hebrews: entering into rest by faith. The "rest" of the Israelites, however, was not the rest of the New Testament, post-Calvary believer. It is slippery manipulation of Scripture, then, to make out like there is some direct equivalency between the "Gospel" the Israelites heard and the Gospel preached to the lost in the New Testament. What "Gospel" the Israelites heard was quite unlike the Christ-centered Gospel that is the "power of God unto salvation to everyone who believes."
The OT prophets saw "the sufferings of Christ AND the glories to follow"
1 Pet 1:10-11 10 As to this salvation, the prophets who prophesied of the grace that would come to you made careful searches and inquiries, 11 seeking to know what person or time the Spirit of Christ within them was indicating as He predicted the sufferings of Christ and the glories to follow.
1 Peter 1:12
12 To them it was revealed that,
not to themselves, but to us they were ministering the things which now have been reported to you through those who have preached the gospel to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven—things which angels desire to look into.
For they all 1 Cor 10:4 and all drank the same spiritual drink, for they were drinking from a spiritual rock which followed them; and the rock was Christ.
This is not speaking of salvation or the post-Calvary Gospel. Paul is saying no more in this verse than what he points out in Colossians 1:
16 For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him.
17 And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist.
Christ, the Creator and Sustainer of the universe, supernaturally provided water and manna to the Israelites.
Heb 11:24 By faith Moses, when he had grown up, refused to be called the son of Pharaoh’s daughter, 25 choosing rather to endure ill-treatment with the people of God than to enjoy the passing pleasures of sin, 26 considering the reproach of Christ greater riches than the treasures of Egypt; for he was looking to the reward
Here Moses is said to have comprehended some of the truth concerning the Messiah. Does the writer of Hebrews say that Moses, therefore, understood the Gospel as we do and/or that Moses was a born-again child of God? No.
Heb 11:7 By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved with fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is by faith.
And so? Your purpose in citing these verses/passages is not entirely clear to me. Does this verse state that Noah was a born-again, Gospel believing saint? No. Did he even understand that he had "become heir of the righteousness which is by faith" (whatever the writer of Hebrews means)? The writer of Hebrews doesn't say.
New Covenant in the OLD testament - Jer 31:31-33 - UNCHANGED in the NT Heb 8:6-12.
Jeremiah 31:31-33 is not the Gospel, that's for sure. No mention of Christ, or the cross, or repentance, or any of the primary truths of the Gospel we find in the New Testament. And Jeremiah's prophecy does not offer the New Covenant to those to whom Jeremiah first prophesied what he did in verses 31-33. How, then, is this passage pertinent to my comments?
Jesus said "THIS Gospel of the kingdom will be preached in all the world and THEN will the end come" Matt 24.
Jesus did not say "I am preaching the wrong Gospel - do not listen to what I teach about forgiveness".
No, Jesus didn't say this. Has someone asserted that he had? I haven't. I pointed out to GingerBeer that Jesus himself said that he purposefully obscured the truth through parables.
As far as I can tell, all that you've offered in response to my last post is largely a deflection of the things I pointed out. Certainly, you have not offered any clear defeaters of my points concerning the scriptural validity of OSAS.