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Devin P

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Are you kidding me! I think people like you do some kind of fantasy role play concerning what took place with Mary. You invent theories, you overlook scripture and interject your own narratives.
Luke 1:26-38
In the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent FROM GOD to a city of Galilee named Nazareth, to a VIRGIN betrothed to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the VIRGIN"S NAME WAS MARY. And he came to her and said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you! But she was greatly troubled at the saying, and considered in her mind what sort of greeting this might be. And the angel said to her," Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found FAVOR WITH GOD. And behold , you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call Him Jesus. he will be great, and will be called the SON OF THE MOST HIGH; and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David, and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever; and of His kingdom there will be no end."

And Mary said to the angel, "How could this be, since I have no husband?" And the angel said to her, 'The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will over shadow you; therefore the child born will be called holy, the Son of God. And behold , your kinswoman Elisabeth in her old age has also conceived a son; and this is the sixth month with her who was called barren. for with God nothing is impossible." And Mary said, ' Behold , I am the handmaid of the Lord; let it be done to me according to your word." And the angel departed from her.

Mary is the fulfillment of the prophecy in Genesis 3:15 When God said to the serpent, " I will put ENMITY between YOU and the WOMAN, and between your seed and Her seed; he shall bruise your head and you shall bruise His heel." This was a prophecy for the future. The woman is Mary, the ENMITY is the Holy Spirit, which is between her and the seed of the serpent= the knowledge of evil=SIN original sin. The Holy Spirit brought forth her seed, at the Immaculate conception and Incarnation of Christ. Who was sent into the world to destroy sin=bruise the head of the serpent. The serpent only bruised Christ heel=flesh which His spirit took up again.

I agree that the enmity between the seed of the woman was Jesus. Absolutely, but the woman isn't Mary. It's Zion.

Isaiah 66:7-8
7 Before she travailed, she brought forth; before her pain came, she was delivered of a man child.

8 Who hath heard such a thing? who hath seen such things? Shall the earth be made to bring forth in one day? or shall a nation be born at once? for as soon as Zion travailed, she brought forth her children.

All of Revelation 12 continues with this.

Wisdom isn't Mary, wisdom is the word of God. Jesus is the first to fulfill the whole word, something that was incredibly hard. Something only Jesus could've done, but once He did it, He allowed more to be born of the same perfection. The wisdom, is knowledge and fear of the Father, not Mary. I'm sorry but literally no where in scripture does it talk about her, aside from her being a virgin. That's it. She was unmarried and undefiled. Either Mary could be perfect, and therefore all men and women could be as well, thereby making the need of a savior worthless, or God took away her flesh before Jesus was meant to, and thereby making Mary obedient by force (His power) and not out of free will. That, and even if He made her perfect, she wasn't. Who died for her sin? Jesus hasn't died at this point, meaning, she inevitably sinned up until this point, and since only blood can atone for sin, your theory about her being perfect makes no sense, because she would've had to die.

Couple this with several verses pointing out that Mary had lacked faith in Jesus, and it makes it clear that He said behold your mother, because she finally believed.

Mark 3:31There came then his brethren and his mother, and, standing without, sent unto him, calling him. 32And the multitude sat about him, and they said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren without seek for thee. 33And he answered them, saying, Who is my mother, or my brethren? 34And he looked round about on them which sat about him, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren! 35For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

There's not really any inserting of anything. This text is Jesus literally denying His mother as His mother because she wasn't doing the will of Father. So either she believed in Him, and just as Peter did - tried stopping Him so He didn't get killed, or, she lost faith and just as His friends tried seizing Him a few verses previously, because of a lack if faith, so did she. One of the two. But of thing is sure, in some way Jesus said she wasn't doing His Father's will. He rejected her being His mother, until the cross, when she believed again.
She became the Immaculate Conception when the Holy Spirit came upon her. This means her flesh became immaculately conceived and her soul BORN AGAIN instantly when the Most High over shadowed her. True meaning of the( Immaculate Conception as not taught by the RCC.) Check this thread. For this is when the Enmity (Holy Spirit) came between she and the serpent. This did not happen in her mothers womb, as the RCC teaches. We are all born with the stain of original sin. Including Mary, the song of Mary states " My soul magnifies the Lord and my spirit REJOICES IN GOD MY SAVIOR" She would have no need for a Savior if this was other wise. Only Christ was born without the stain of original sin. Mary had to be prepared for this though and had to be without stain or blemish to receive Christ in her womb. She became instantly, what we become eventual.

Favor means held in special consideration, over others. Romans 9:20-21 But who are you, a man to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, "Why have you made me thus?" Has not the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the SAME LUMP one vessel for beauty and another for menial use?

This means we all come from the same clay= we are all born into this world the same way and of the same origin Adam and Eve. However, God chose, Mary to be purposed for beauty. Given the CARE OF OUR SALVATION, our Savior Jesus. The Holy Spirit made her instantly perfect. This is the fulfillment of the prophecy in Genesis 3:15. It was the season for our Savior to come. And She was the chosen vessel .

She could not have the stain of sin. The Messiah had to be in an immaculate vessel. And had to be reared by an immaculate vessel. He had to be nurtured by the Tree of Life, Wisdom. For as in heaven so on earth must it be. Wisdom was at the Words side at Creation and had to be on earth. Mary became the chosen vessel to be the full embodiment of Wisdom . Wisdom is a feminine spirit. If you have not read my threads concerning the immaculate conception, here are some bible references concerning Wisdom.
Sirach 1. Proverbs 9 and folly in this chapter are false churches who lie about Mary and reject Mary altogether. They are always speaking against Wisdom. Full of Grace means full of Wisdom. For all graces are poured forth through Wisdom. God made Wisdom a Woman.It is in prophecy and is why Solomon asked for Wisdom to be His bride. The book of Wisdom of Solomon.

The Bride Church who venerates Mary will become for Israel an extension of Mary to Israel and the house of Jacob. They will bring forth the male Child of Rev12, in Israel. Israel will no longer give birth to air. For the fullness of the gospel which includes Mary will be embraced. For it is their full heritage. As Christ is the second Adam 1Corinthians 45 Thus it is written, " The first man Adam became a living being"; the LAST ADAM became a LIFE- GIVING spirit. This He was to Mary first. As Christ is the Last Adam, Mary naturally is the Last Eve. This makes her our Mother. For she can not be the Mother of the Head and not the Body. She first had to be born of the Holy Spirit , which we know came upon her at the immaculate conception and Incarnation of Christ. This did not happen before this time. She is the mother of all the living. Those who are alive through Christ. She is not the mother to the spiritually dead.

From her yes, she abides in Christ and can not sin.
1John31-10 see what love the Father has given us, that we should be called children of God; and so we are. The reason why the world does not know us is that it did not know Him. ( Mary knew Him before all did). Continuing: Beloved, we are children of God now; it does not yet appear what we shall be, but we know that when He appears we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as he is. And everyone who thus hopes in him purifies himself as He is pure. Everyone who commits sin is guilty of lawlessness; sin is lawlessness. You KNOW THAT HE APPEARED TO TAKE AWAY SINS, and in Him there is no sin. No one who ABIDES in Him sins; (MARY ABIDES FROM THE MOMENT OF HER YES, THEREFORE COULD NEVER SIN FROM THAT MOMENT ON).

Continuing 1John3. no one who sins has either seen Him or known Him. ( WE KNOW MARY HAS SEEN AND KNOWS HIM BETTER THAN ANYONE).
Little children, LET NO ONE DECEIVE YOU. He who does right is righteous, as he is righteous. ( SHE DOES RIGHT ALWAYS). Cont.: He who commits sin is of the devil; for the devil has sinned from the beginning. the reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil. NO ONE BORN OF GOD COMMITS SIN; for God's nature abides in him, and he cannot sin because he is born of God. (MARY WAS BORN OF GOD AT THE MOMENT THE HOLY SPIRIT CAME UPON HER).

Cont. 1John 3, By this may be seen who are the children of God, and the children of the devil: whoever does not do right is not of God, nor he who does not love his brother.

We know Mary does right and did right by Christ, for she raised Him. She did no wrong.

Popular argument by Protestants against Mary, this too is a false interpretation of Christ words:
Jesus' Mother and brothers ( Mark3:31-35; Luke8:19-21)

While Jesus was still speaking to the crowds His mother and brothers stood outside, wanting to speak to Him. Someone told Him, "Look, Your Mother and brothers are standing outside, wanting to speak to You."

But Jesus replied, "Who is My mother, and who are My brothers?" Pointing to His disciples, He said, "here are My mother and My brothers. For whoever does the will of My Father in heaven is My brother and sister and mother."

The scoffers of Mary use this part of scripture to suggest Jesus had no regard for her or his brothers who consisted of family and the apostles. Their lack of guidance by the Holy Spirit causes false interpretation.
Christ words are true; those who do the will of his Father in heaven are called His brothers, His sisters, His mother. But first and foremost , His Mother and brothers, and apostles. They are the first to be as such, and Mary is literally His birth mother.

The false "Christian" churches do not see the heart of the Word. It is the will of His Father in heaven to venerate Mary and the apostles. They are part of the Body of Christ and we should venerate each other. Veneration: to have great, respectful love, adoration. Mary and the apostles, and not to mention Joseph,Elisabeth and Zachariah and John the Baptist. Are the first to know. The scoffers seem to imply Christ had some dishonor for His Chosen mother. He would never break His own Commandments. "Honor thy Father and thy Mother." She is His mother and was chosen by God. Shame on anyone who would disregard her. If she is the mother" Bearer of God" or "God Bearer" she is the mother of the Body of Christ. Not only would He not break his own commandments , He would never disregard prophecy concerning her. Nor would He disregard words spoken by her.

In this Mark and Luke account ; He was not saying Mary, his brothers and apostles do not do the will of His Father in heaven; He was encouraging the crowd to aim as high in practice, the respect they held for Mary, His brothers and His apostles, VENERATION! They of the crowd felt is was more important for Yeshua (Jesus) to acknowledge Miriam (Mary) and His family than to continue to speak to them. The crowd held His family in HIGH REGARD. Miriam , his brothers and the apostles who were waiting outside for Him, were already with Him. He was encouraging the crowds heart, encouraging them to be like that which they held in high regard. He is telling them to aim for the highest good. That is to be His brother, sister, His mother. Obviously we cannot be His Father. So to be like the others is our highest good.

Respect is not a sin. "I AM NOT ASHAMED OF THE GOSPEL OF CHRIST", the whole gospel. It began in Mary, her yes made her soul MAGNIFY the Lord for us. To magnify: to bring ones vision closer to the source, it does not change, remove, or replace that which is magnified. In the spiritual sense, it simply brings our hearts closer to Christ' in order to see more clearly the glorious words and works of God. In turn the Elect's soul too magnifies the Lord for Jews especially who in turn will magnify the Lord. It is an eternal cycle.
Way too much to respond to and read I'm sorry. I don't have this much time right now. Form shorter points and I'd be able to later, but I don't have the time to go through all of that right now.
 
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mmksparbud

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But when and where did this happen? On Calvary, where Our Lord was Sacrificing Himself on the Cross for the sins of the world. Why would Jesus, in the middle of the most important event in all of time, do something so earthly and temporal? If all Jesus was doing was having St. John take care of Mary once He was gone, why didn't He do that earlier, like at the last supper? Why did He wait until His most holy Sacrifice on the Cross to do this?

May I ask you why Jesus said this:
Mar 3:35 For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

Given the opportunity to have Mary exalted and praised at this moment would have settled the question. Instead He says
whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

Why didn't He say something that would have made her more special in the eyes of everyone there and then?
Again---why did He let this opportunity go by?
Luk 11:27 And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked.
Luk 11:28 But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.

Not only did He not take the opportunity to, right there and then, have her truly spoken of with reverence and adoration and made as a mother to us all--why did He not only not say that but said RATHER blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.
He did not say---ALSO, or in any way include her--but said RATHER.
rath·er
[ˈraT͟Hər]
ADVERB

  1. (would rather)
    used to indicate one's preference in a particular matter
  2. It is His preference that blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it, over "Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked"??!! That in itself shows that He did not in any way show any sign that His mother was to be held in the high esteem in which you regard her.
 
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Marvin Knox

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Judging by what Our Lord says in the text itself, the most logical explanation of this passage, is that Our Lord, in giving His Mother to St. John, and saying, "Behold thy Mother," is giving Mary to all Christians to be Our Mother.
Non sense - the most logical explanation of the passage is exactly what it appears to be. Jesus is giving the care of His mother over to, arguably, His most beloved and trusted disciple. There is nothing more to it.

All good systematic theologies - whether Protestant or Catholic - recognize two types of statements in scripture.

Descriptive literature simply describes what happened. Narrative literature is basically descriptive. It is telling what happened, but not necessarily telling readers that they should do everything in the same manner.

Prescriptive literature commands the reader to a course of action. Prescriptive literature instructs the reader to do something, to act in such and such a way. Prescriptive writing is characterized by lots of imperatives, i.e., commands.”

For example:

"But standing by the cross of Jesus were His mother, and His mother’s sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene. When Jesus then saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing nearby, He *said to His mother, “Woman, behold, your son!” Then He *said to the disciple, “Behold, your mother!” From that hour the disciple took her into his own household.

After this, Jesus, knowing that all things had already been accomplished, to fulfill the Scripture, *said, “I am thirsty.” John 19:25-28

This is a classic example of a descriptive passage which is often taken as prescriptive.

"And when He had taken some bread and given thanks, He broke it and gave it to them, saying, “This is My body which is given for you; do this in remembrance of Me.” Luke 22:19

This is a classic example of a prescriptive passage. But it is often stretched to mean more than intended to support some particular dogma - just as you have done with the descriptive passage above. Catholics tend to do that a lot.

You would do well to remember that the Lord seems to have purposefully given us scriptures which can be stretched to develop cultist teachings. He seems to have given those who lack the Holy Spirit enough rope to hang themselves as it were.

It seems that this is a bit of a test- in order to show wheat from weeds at the judgment.

"No doubt there have to be differences among you to show which of you have God's approval." 1 Corinthians 11:19

For example - stretched beyond it's descriptive intention by Mormons:

"Otherwise, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?"

You have done a similar thing here to what the Mormons have done. It will likely be your undoing IMO.

This is a test to see whether you are truly a "sola scriptura" type or a "traditions of men above the Word of God type".

I go to the above trouble for you because I want you to repent of your false teaching concerning Mary, the mother of Jesus.
I can't think of any other logical implication other than this,
You haven't thought much about it then.
So tell me Protestants, how is it that this passage doesn't mean what it logically implies?
It does.
Ave Maria!!!
Hail Jesus - the only mediator between God and man.

P.S.
Your abuse of scripture seems to me to be a much bigger stretch than even the Mormon stretch is.

As I see things - for what it's worth - yours will thus likely be regarded as the bigger sin in the day of judgment.
 
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klutedavid

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In my Sola Scriptura debate, someone stated that Sola Scripture isn't about interpreting Scripture, and I responded that, that's exactly what happened to me, that I pulled up a Catholic proof-text, and someone immediately responded, not these exact words, but to the effect of:

No, no, no, it can't mean that, you're just taking that passage and running with it that! It can't mean that because, Sola Scriptura!

Again, not in those direct words, but that's what I got from it. I've decided to bring up the proof-text in question, and see if it determine what this passage really means, and whether or not Protestants are hiding behind Sola Scriptura when it comes to this passage.

The passage in question, comes from the Holy Gospel according to St. John Chapter 19, in that chapter, we see the greatest event in history, Our Lord's Passion. Our Lord is scourged; crowned with thorns; condemned; forced to carry His Cross; is nailed to the Cross and left to die. Our Lord is on Calvary, sacrificing Himself for the sins of the world, undeniably the most holy act in a history, when all of sudden, seemingly out of nowhere, the following happens:

Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalen.
When Jesus therefore had seen his mother and the disciple standing whom he loved, he saith to his mother: Woman, behold thy son.
After that, he saith to the disciple: Behold thy mother. And from that hour, the disciple took her to his own.
Afterwards, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, said: I thirst.
- The Holy Gospel according to St. John 19:25-28 Douay-Rheims Version
Why would Our Lord, in the middle of His Most Holy Sacrifice on the Cross, suddenly just, again, seemingly out of nowhere, give His Mother to St. John? And speaking of St. John, this happens in his Gospel, and his Gospel the most theologically exalted of all the Gospels! The only logical explanation, for this seemingly sudden exchange in the middle of Our Lord's sacrifice, is that it has to be something important! Judging by what Our Lord says in the text itself, the most logical explanation of this passage, is that Our Lord, in giving His Mother to St. John, and saying, "Behold thy Mother," is giving Mary to all Christians to be Our Mother. I can't think of any other logical implication other than this, I didn't even quote a Church Father, it's the only logical explanation to this passage! So tell me Protestants, how is it that this passage doesn't mean what it logically implies?


Once again, my activity here will be very slow, due to College work, so I call on my fellow-Catholics to help me out here, with this very easy dogma. I'm currently working big assignment, hopefully after this week, things will speed up a bit, and I can be more active in these threads.

I'll be back later the evening.

Ave Maria!!!
Hello JLOL.

The verse you quoted above is a striking statement regarding the exact identity of Mary.

When Jesus therefore had seen his mother and the disciple standing whom he loved, he saith to his mother: Woman, behold thy son

Jesus calls her, 'woman', which is not an endearing term to say the least. Yet the way Jesus refers to His earthly mother, fits exactly what He had said earlier on.

Matthew 12
47 Someone said to Him, “Behold, Your mother and Your brothers are standing outside seeking to speak to You.” 48 But Jesus answered the one who was telling Him and said, “Who is My mother and who are My brothers?” 49 And stretching out His hand toward His disciples, He said, “Behold My mother and My brothers! 50 For whoever does the will of My Father who is in heaven, he is My brother and sister and mother.”

Mary seems to not be considered as an important identity by Jesus.
 
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DamianWarS

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Judging by what Our Lord says in the text itself, the most logical explanation of this passage, is that Our Lord, in giving His Mother to St. John, and saying, "Behold thy Mother," is giving Mary to all Christians to be Our Mother. I can't think of any other logical implication other than this

it seems to me Jesus released the role of his mother that would inevitably turn into mother of the divine to John so that she would not have to bare this role, otherwise she is perpetually the mother of God which no human can bare.
 
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JoeP222w

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In my Sola Scriptura debate, someone stated that Sola Scripture isn't about interpreting Scripture, and I responded that, that's exactly what happened to me, that I pulled up a Catholic proof-text, and someone immediately responded, not these exact words, but to the effect of:

No, no, no, it can't mean that, you're just taking that passage and running with it that! It can't mean that because, Sola Scriptura!

Again, not in those direct words, but that's what I got from it. I've decided to bring up the proof-text in question, and see if it determine what this passage really means, and whether or not Protestants are hiding behind Sola Scriptura when it comes to this passage.

The passage in question, comes from the Holy Gospel according to St. John Chapter 19, in that chapter, we see the greatest event in history, Our Lord's Passion. Our Lord is scourged; crowned with thorns; condemned; forced to carry His Cross; is nailed to the Cross and left to die. Our Lord is on Calvary, sacrificing Himself for the sins of the world, undeniably the most holy act in a history, when all of sudden, seemingly out of nowhere, the following happens:

Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalen.
When Jesus therefore had seen his mother and the disciple standing whom he loved, he saith to his mother: Woman, behold thy son.
After that, he saith to the disciple: Behold thy mother. And from that hour, the disciple took her to his own.
Afterwards, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, said: I thirst.
- The Holy Gospel according to St. John 19:25-28 Douay-Rheims Version
Why would Our Lord, in the middle of His Most Holy Sacrifice on the Cross, suddenly just, again, seemingly out of nowhere, give His Mother to St. John? And speaking of St. John, this happens in his Gospel, and his Gospel the most theologically exalted of all the Gospels! The only logical explanation, for this seemingly sudden exchange in the middle of Our Lord's sacrifice, is that it has to be something important! Judging by what Our Lord says in the text itself, the most logical explanation of this passage, is that Our Lord, in giving His Mother to St. John, and saying, "Behold thy Mother," is giving Mary to all Christians to be Our Mother. I can't think of any other logical implication other than this, I didn't even quote a Church Father, it's the only logical explanation to this passage! So tell me Protestants, how is it that this passage doesn't mean what it logically implies?


Once again, my activity here will be very slow, due to College work, so I call on my fellow-Catholics to help me out here, with this very easy dogma. I'm currently working big assignment, hopefully after this week, things will speed up a bit, and I can be more active in these threads.

I'll be back later the evening.

Ave Maria!!!

Jesus was simply telling John to take care of Mary as if she was his (John) mother. Tradition holds that Mary was a widow at that point. So Mary would have had no one to take care of her.

To say that this was designating Mary as mother to all Christians is a tremendous leap in logic when no other passage in scripture would support or affirm such a thought. It is not logically implied as you suggest.

I don't think any early church father that I am aware of believed Mary to be the mother of all Christians, and most certainly did not believe that Mary should be elevated or venerated as Rome teaches today. If you can show evidence of this from 1st or 2nd century church fathers believe about Mary as Rome teaches as dogma today, that would be interesting.

I wonder if you have the common misrepresentation of Sola Scriptura that Rome promotes?
 
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omega2xx

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In my Sola Scriptura debate, someone stated that Sola Scripture isn't about interpreting Scripture, and I responded that, that's exactly what happened to me, that I pulled up a Catholic proof-text, and someone immediately responded, not these exact words, but to the effect of:

No, no, no, it can't mean that, you're just taking that passage and running with it that! It can't mean that because, Sola Scriptura!

Again, not in those direct words, but that's what I got from it. I've decided to bring up the proof-text in question, and see if it determine what this passage really means, and whether or not Protestants are hiding behind Sola Scriptura when it comes to this passage.

The passage in question, comes from the Holy Gospel according to St. John Chapter 19, in that chapter, we see the greatest event in history, Our Lord's Passion. Our Lord is scourged; crowned with thorns; condemned; forced to carry His Cross; is nailed to the Cross and left to die. Our Lord is on Calvary, sacrificing Himself for the sins of the world, undeniably the most holy act in a history, when all of sudden, seemingly out of nowhere, the following happens:

Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalen.
When Jesus therefore had seen his mother and the disciple standing whom he loved, he saith to his mother: Woman, behold thy son.
After that, he saith to the disciple: Behold thy mother. And from that hour, the disciple took her to his own.
Afterwards, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, said: I thirst.
- The Holy Gospel according to St. John 19:25-28 Douay-Rheims Version
Why would Our Lord, in the middle of His Most Holy Sacrifice on the Cross, suddenly just, again, seemingly out of nowhere, give His Mother to St. John? And speaking of St. John, this happens in his Gospel, and his Gospel the most theologically exalted of all the Gospels! The only logical explanation, for this seemingly sudden exchange in the middle of Our Lord's sacrifice, is that it has to be something important! Judging by what Our Lord says in the text itself, the most logical explanation of this passage, is that Our Lord, in giving His Mother to St. John, and saying, "Behold thy Mother," is giving Mary to all Christians to be Our Mother. I can't think of any other logical implication other than this, I didn't even quote a Church Father, it's the only logical explanation to this passage! So tell me Protestants, how is it that this passage doesn't mean what it logically implies?


Once again, my activity here will be very slow, due to College work, so I call on my fellow-Catholics to help me out here, with this very easy dogma. I'm currently working big assignment, hopefully after this week, things will speed up a bit, and I can be more active in these threads.

I'll be back later the evening.

Ave Maria!!!

  • IMO John 19:27 is not to be taken literally. There Jesus is speaking to an individual, not the church. Jesus is telling John that Mary was now his responsibility. Treat her like you would you own mother.
We need to have Sarah as our mother(GaL 4:21-31).
 
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omega2xx

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Luke chapter 1 verse 42
In a loud voice she exclaimed: "Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the child you will bear!

Luke chapter 1 verse 43
But why am I so favored, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?


That is what Elizabeth said when Mary came to John the Baptists mother.

And look what is said in verse 42 about Mary ("Blessed are you among women)
she was a lucky women but that's it.


Right. Blessed are you among women, not over women
 
  • Agree
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omega2xx

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Eve is the mother of us all.
Gen_3:20 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living

Only in the sense that she conceived the life from which all human life originated. She is our grest, great, great, great etc grandmother. For her to be our mother, we have to have come from her womb
 
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mmksparbud

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Only in the sense that she conceived the life from which all human life originated. She is our grest, great, great, great etc grandmother. For her to be our mother, we have to have come from her womb

Ya think we do not know that????!!
 
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JesusLovesOurLady

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Almost everyone would agree that Jesus indeed loved His whole family and others, but He never exalted any of them over others, but He Himself did make this statement in Luke 11:27-28 And it happened, as He spoke these things, that a certain woman from the crowd raised her voice and said to Him, “Blessed is the womb that bore You, and the breasts which nursed You!” 28 But He said, “More than that, blessed are those who hear the word of God and keep it!”
And Mary said: Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it done to me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.
...
And Mary said:
My soul doth magnify the Lord.
And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.
Because he hath regarded the humility of his handmaid; for behold from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed.

-St. Luke 1:38 & 46-48
Kind of like this He had already made to those who were sent out to proclaim the good news, again, He shows the greater issue: Luke 10:19-20 Behold, I give you the authority to trample on serpents and scorpions, and over all the power of the enemy, and nothing shall by any means hurt you. 20 Nevertheless do not rejoice in this, that the spirits are subject to you, but rather rejoice because your names are written in heaven.

So what? What does this have to do with the topic at hand? Heck, even the above argument was rather off-topic!
 
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JesusLovesOurLady

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Because Joseph was dead by then, and there was nobody else to look after her. John was, of course, her nephew, and Jesus' cousin.
But why there, on Mount Calvary as He's sacrificing Himself for the sins of the world? Why would He, in the middle of preforming the most Holiest act ever done on this planet, preoccupy Himself with such an affair?

No, that is not logical at all. If Jesus had meant that, he would not have addressed his words to John only.
St. John was the only Apostle present there.
 
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JesusLovesOurLady

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Luke chapter 1 verse 42
In a loud voice she exclaimed: "Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the child you will bear!

Luke chapter 1 verse 43
But why am I so favored, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?


That is what Elizabeth said when Mary came to John the Baptists mother.

And look what is said in verse 42 about Mary ("Blessed are you among women)
she was a lucky women but that's it.
What does this have to do with the topic at hand?
 
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JesusLovesOurLady

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All I think He was saying, was that she believed on Him at that moment.

Back in Mark 3:34, (some context of what's happening in this verse) Jesus' mother, and family tried to get Him to come back home, because they thought He was off of His rocker. They thought He was crazy, and lacked faith in Him, and those He was teaching basically were like "Jesus, your mom and brothers are outside, go to them." And He's like No, she isn't my mother, and they aren't my brothers. Then in Mark 3:34

Mark 3:34 - 34And he looked round about on them which sat about him, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren!

He looked around the room, and said that about a woman, and about the men He saw, because they believed on Him, and did the will of His Father.

I think He said behold your mother, because at this point in time, she finally saw and realized, she finally understood and knew who He was. The Messiah.
Where in St. Mark 3:34, or all of St. Mark 3 for that matter does it say that Mary thought that Jesus was crazy?

No, Our Lord is simply saying that those who imitate Mary, and say "fiat" to God like she did in St. Luke 1:38, will become brothers and sisters in Christ, sharing the same Mother.
 
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disciple1

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What does this have to do with the topic at hand?
I thought it had a lot to do with it, is this better.
Matthew chapter 12 verse 50
For whoever does the will of my Father in heaven is my brother and sister and mother."
 
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JesusLovesOurLady

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May I ask you why Jesus said this:
Mar 3:35 For whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

Given the opportunity to have Mary exalted and praised at this moment would have settled the question. Instead He says
whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my brother, and my sister, and mother.

Why didn't He say something that would have made her more special in the eyes of everyone there and then?
Again---why did He let this opportunity go by?
Luk 11:27 And it came to pass, as he spake these things, a certain woman of the company lifted up her voice, and said unto him, Blessed is the womb that bare thee, and the paps which thou hast sucked.
Luk 11:28 But he said, Yea rather, blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.
And Mary said: Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it done to me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.
-St. Luke 1:38 DR
Not only did He not take the opportunity to, right there and then, have her truly spoken of with reverence and adoration and made as a mother to us all--why did He not only not say that but said RATHER blessed are they that hear the word of God, and keep it.

Blasphemy! Adoration is for God alone!
 
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