brightlights
A sinner
- Jul 31, 2004
- 4,164
- 298
- Country
- United States
- Gender
- Male
- Faith
- Presbyterian
- Marital Status
- Married
- Politics
- US-Republican
No one can deny that the Bible is subject to widely differing interpretations due linguistic factors. I've seen opposite meanings derived from the same passage depending on how a word or phrase is translated. For believers, this should be more than just an academic concern. Different understandings of the Bible is perplexing, and is one of the reasons that Christianity has split into so many denominations. (And back in the bad old days, people could be imprisoned, or worse, for teaching or publishing unorthodox Bible doctrines.)
So why would God allow this confusion because of language? This may sound fatuous, but why would we need translations at all? If the Bible is of divine origin, why wouldn't God use his supernatural power to make it crystal clean and unambiguous to every reader, no matter what his native language?
It sounds like there are many questions here and each deserves its own attention. Let me try to identify what's really being asked and you can choose which question you'd like to deal with first. It seems to me that you're asking:
- If God is in control of his word why would he allow anyone to be confused about what it says and means?
- Why was the Bible written in a fixed language that would require translation?
- Why would God allow for confusion in human language in general?
- Why wouldn't God have ensured that there be one universal language?
- Why isn't the meaning of the Bible clear to all who read it?
Am I understanding your questions?
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