HatGuy
Some guy in a hat
- Jun 9, 2014
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- South Africa
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- Christian
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- Married
Thought about this before and I think it's a very good question.Okay, this is one that vexes me.
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:
1) eternally dead
2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.
The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:
a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)
b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)
It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.
Thoughts?
Annihilationism answers the question. In fact, the question is one of those questions that gets me to think annihilationism is the truth.
That's because if hell is an eternal death (complete death - not eternal torment) then Jesus paid the price and was victorious over it. He paid the price (death) and then conquered it.
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