thereselittleflower said:
John . .this also greatly dissappoints . . . . .
You have no context here . . the letter which you are quoting from provides no context either. . . . Where is the original question from St Boniface to which this is responding?
Apparently not preserved in the textual record.
thereselittleflower said:
This is presented it here as if it is to be understood in the context of a scarmental marriage between baptized believers . . . for that is the only context that would have direct bearing on anything we have been saying.
Considering the prior question was one of whether marriages could be solemnized within certain degrees of consanguinuity, then the context indicates this question is
in pari materia with it.
thereselittleflower said:
Yet, this is only an assumption for there is NOTHING in the answer itself which suggests this. . . .
So it isn't a teaching on faith and morals? Okay, the charism slipped a bit that day.
thereselittleflower said:
This was an answer given to a MISSIONARY. . . . . This was from a MISSIONARY letter to St Boniface. That is a bit of context that is necessary, wouldn't you agree?
OK, so missionaries can be lax. That would be, perhaps, maybe, economy?
thereselittleflower said:
How do you know he is not speaking regarding a situation as it arises between those who are not within the Church, who are unbelievers?
And this matters exactly how? Isn't sin sin in all contexts?
And, if it was unbeleivers, why would a missionary bishop be involved at all?
No, this objection simply makes no sense.
thereselittleflower said:
How do you know he is not speaking regarding a situation as it arises between those where one partner of the mariage has converted and become a believer, yet their spouse is still an unbeliever ?
So that is grounds for divorce? Somehow I doubt it.
thereselittleflower said:
Presenting the quote stripped of what context is available, and as though it proves in some way that the West had similara views (for that is the purpose of your posting this) when you can't prove what the context of the response actually is in support of such use of it here, is extremely WEAK evidence for your case and cannot legitimately be used as evidence to support your position if you cannot prove that it is referring to what should happen when such circumstances arise between spouses who participate in a sacramentally valid marriage between two baptized believers.
He presentedthe entire paragraph, the entire answer to the question presented. He provided the link to the entire letter.
I read it.
thereselittleflower said:
Since you can't provide such evidence, use of this of this quote in this manner is highly fallacious.
It was not fallacious. Please, please, please avoid tossing around technical terms describing arguments if you are not going to use them correctly. It adds nothing to your rebuttal and, in fact, decreases your
ethos.