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I have learned one thing today. 101 has all the answers. He is right and everyone else is wrong.
None of this thread is relevant.
The only relevant thing is that when Revelation was given to John, Nero (the 6th king) was reigning.
Therefore it was written sometime before A.D. 68.
Period.
End of story.
Revelation 17:10.
'esti(n)' is present indicative.
It's good for him to know there is someone here who can read and parse Greek instead of looking up Strongs #s, lol!!!
Your agreement with him proves to me that he can't be right.I have not been able to dispute any of the scripture he has posted, so far.
101 said:I see. So you're saying we're dealing with an illiterate angel who didn't know the difference in kings and kingdoms.
So when the angel says
Καὶ βασιλεῖς εἰσιν ἑπτά· οἱ πέντε ἔπεσον, ὁ εἷς ἔστιν, ὁ ἄλλος οὔπω ἦλθεν· καί, ὅταν ἔλθῃ, ὀλίγον δεῖ αὐτὸν μεῖναι.
He really should have said
Καὶ βασιλείας εἰσιν ἑπτά· οἱ πέντε ἔπεσον, ὁ εἷς ἔστιν, ὁ ἄλλος οὔπω ἦλθεν· καί, ὅταν ἔλθῃ, ὀλίγον δεῖ αὐτὸν μεῖναι.
Because, otherwise, it might sound like he was speaking of 7 literal kings--the 6th of whom was alive and reigning at the time John received this revelation. Unless of course ἔστιν does not in fact mean 'is', but means some other nebulous tense such 'will be', or 'might have been'.
Your agreement with him proves to me that he can't be right.
My statement was not based on interpretation, but on a principle unquestionably used by the Holy Spirit in previous prophecies.
I do wish we had someone here who could translate your posts into understandable english!That is a good example of why we should not be so exacting about what these kinds of passages are saying. They are not NASA manuals; they move fluidly between categories we do not otherwise accept.
Yet you still interpret it to be kingdoms and not kings which is one-sided. What would be the logical explanation for the beasts being called kings and kingdoms? Not that in each beast kingdom there's a king that's a beast that represent the whole kingdom? sorta like the "Prince of Persia" Gabriel had to fight with before he fought with the "Prince of Grecia?"My statement was not based on interpretation, but on a principle unquestionably used by the Holy Spirit in previous prophecies.
In Daniel 7, the prophet was shown a vision of four beasts. And then in verse 17 he was explicitly told that "Those great beasts, which are four, are four kings which arise out of the earth." But then, in verses 23 and 24, he was just as explicitly told that "The fourth beast shall be A fourth kingdom on earth, Which shall be different from all other kingdoms, And shall devour the whole earth, Trample it and break it in pieces. The ten horns are ten kings Who shall arise from this kingdom." (Daniel 7:23-24)
So here the scripture plainly says both that this beast is a king and also that it is a kingdom.
The reason why Historians date Revelation to be in Domitian's time is because the world is not of God. How old would John have been in 98 ad, muchless to go and prophesy to other nations and kings afterwards. That's just pure stupidity.
Actually, the historical records say that he continued to preach for a long time after the death of Domatian.
But in the Greek text of Revelation 10:11, which you are referring to, John was told he would prophesy again epi, which literally translates as on many peoples, nations, tongues, and kings. So he was told that he must again prophesy about, not to, many peoples, nations, tongues, and kings. as this this was done in the rest of the book, it was a reference to that, not to future work after the book was finished.
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