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Good morning all,
I'm reading the book, The New Answers Book 1 and I came across something that seems to reflect my thinking on how we need to stringently strive to separate from what we believe, what the Scriptures actually tell us and what we believe based on things that great teachers and theologians have placed as an overlay of the Scriptures. The author is talking about a theologian by the name of G. H. Pember. Pember, according to his bio, was affiliated with the 'Plymouth Brethren' fellowship of believers. In his lifetime in the U.K. he authored several books and theological treatises. His basic foundational belief of the creation was of the gap theory type.
However, in his book Earth's earliest ages he writes of the phenomenon that I am alluding to in my understanding on this and many other discussions of the Scriptures and what they 'really' tell us vs. what many people 'understand' that the Scriptures tell us. He writes:
For, by skillfully blending their own systems with the truths of the Scriptures, they so bewildered the minds of the multitude that but few retained the power of distinguishing the revelation of God from the craftily interwoven teachings of men. And the result is that inconsistent and unsound interpretations have been handed down from generation to generation, and received as if they were integral parts of the Scriptures themselves;...
Now, this explanation of how men's ideas get interwoven into our understanding of what the Scriptures really say is directed towards his understanding of the creation event and so he concludes:
...while any texts which seem violently opposed were allegorized, spiritualized, or explained away, till they ceased to be troublesome, or perchance, were even made subservient.
So, this is what I strive to separate when studying the Scriptures and attempting to understand what God is telling me. In this 'Jesus is God' discussion, we have some very distinct teachings that can be gleaned from the words of the Scriptures.
Jesus is God's Son. This relationship between Jesus and God is repeated literally dozens of times in the new covenant writings.
God is Jesus' Father. This relationship is also repeated multiple times in the new covenant writings.
In nearly every introduction of his letters, Paul writes greetings to those he is addressing and clearly separates who he is writing to them on behalf of. In his letter to the Romans he holds out a clear separation between who God is and who Jesus is:
Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle and set apart for the gospel of God—the gospel he promised beforehand through his prophets in the Holy Scriptures regarding his Son, who as to his earthly life was a descendant of David, and who through the Spirit of holiness was appointed the Son of God in power by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord. Romans 1:1-4
In his first letter to the Corinthian believers Paul also separates that there is God and there is Jesus:
Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. 1 Corinthians 1:3
In 2 Corinthians 1:2 he addresses his reader in the exact same way. In his opening salutation to the believers in Galatia he makes even more clear that Jesus is under the authority of God:
Paul, an apostle—sent not from men nor by a man, but by Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him from the dead...Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ, who gave himself for our sins to rescue us from the present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father,
to whom be glory for ever and ever. Amen.
As I said, nearly all of Paul's letters begin this way. I can't imagine that it isn't clear to us that Paul, at least, seemed to hold some separation between who God is and who Jesus is.
The book of Hebrews goes into even greater detail concerning this apparent separation between God and Jesus:
In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe. The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven. So he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs.
Clearly the writer of Hebrews is telling us that there is a separate and distinct personage who now sits at the right hand of the Majesty (God) in heaven. That one is our Lord and Savior, Jesus. There is also another possibly important teaching in this passage of Hebrews that honestly, I would have to research further to have any assurance that it is saying what it seems to be saying:
So he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs. Is this possibly actually telling us that after he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven and then became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs? Did this that he became proceed from the process and completion of his providing purification for sin? Now, I don't wish to derail my purpose in this post, but depending on the accuracy of translators, that would seem to be what this passage in the writings of Hebrews seems to be making. What are we to understand from this phrase 'So he became'?
Then we move to other writers of the new covenant. James opens his letter:
James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ...
Peter opens his letter:
Praise be to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ!
John in his letter:
The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us. We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son, Jesus Christ.
So, it seems clear to me that the first apostles seemed to define and understand that there was some separation in who God is and who Jesus is.
On the other side of the discussion there are some apparent evidences that Jesus made some statements that could be construed that He was God, but they aren't as clear as these previous evidences that I've pulled from the apostles' writings.
At one point, when Jesus was challenged on his claim of having known Abraham, he answers his challengers by saying that before Abraham was, I am. This was, according to the Scriptures themselves, one of the chief reasons that the Jews came to decide that he had to die for such blasphemy and to refer to himself as God. But, is that what he was telling them?
We know, through the Scriptures, that Jesus also existed before Abraham. But, we also know that there is a record in the Scriptures that Jesus claimed that the words he spoke were not his own, but were given to him by the Father. He clearly said that the words I speak are not my own.
The words I say to you I do not speak on my own authority. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. John 14:10
Is it therefore possible, that when Jesus replied to them "I am", that it was the Father living in him that caused him to speak those words just as he claimed to his disciples that it was the Father living in him that caused him to speak the words he spoke to them? I'm simply saying that our using this reference of the Scriptures to make some claim that Jesus is God, could well be the same error that the Jews thought those words meant that brought about Jesus' death. Now, I'm not saying that our believing the same thing about these words is also tantamount to our causing Jesus' death, but that in this instance it does seem to have been a great cause for error to the Jews, also.
Try out this possible explanation for Jesus' words. Jesus is standing before this group of people with the Spirit of God within him that, according to his own testimony, is giving him the words that proceed from his mouth. They challenge him on his claim that he existed before Abraham. God's Spirit directs Jesus to say to them in order to prove the authority and person of the one who is actually speaking to them, say to them, "I tell you that before Abraham, I Am!" So, this is God's Spirit speaking through His Son saying something like, "Listen guys. You want to know who you're dealing with here and how long I've been around? Well here's how you will know in the same way that I told Moses to let the first Israelites know who was sending him. Son, say to them that I Am and they will realize that just as I sent Moses with that testimony to identify to the Israelites who was sending him, I am likewise using those same words to identity to this bunch of stiff-necked people who sent you.
That's just a possible explanation, of course, but it does have a certain fitment and is exactly how God told Moses to identify Him to the Israelites 1,000 years before. But, as seems so clear to me, the first apostles didn't seem to have this Jesus is God understanding that we try to push around today. So, for me, Jesus is God's Son and God is his Father. Jesus is the servant that Isaiah wrote of. This also would explain more easily how Jesus could die for our sins, but God cannot. God cannot die. So if there's a need for death to ransom sinners, then God couldn't have provided it through His own death. God cannot die!
God bless,
In Christ, ted
I'm reading the book, The New Answers Book 1 and I came across something that seems to reflect my thinking on how we need to stringently strive to separate from what we believe, what the Scriptures actually tell us and what we believe based on things that great teachers and theologians have placed as an overlay of the Scriptures. The author is talking about a theologian by the name of G. H. Pember. Pember, according to his bio, was affiliated with the 'Plymouth Brethren' fellowship of believers. In his lifetime in the U.K. he authored several books and theological treatises. His basic foundational belief of the creation was of the gap theory type.
However, in his book Earth's earliest ages he writes of the phenomenon that I am alluding to in my understanding on this and many other discussions of the Scriptures and what they 'really' tell us vs. what many people 'understand' that the Scriptures tell us. He writes:
For, by skillfully blending their own systems with the truths of the Scriptures, they so bewildered the minds of the multitude that but few retained the power of distinguishing the revelation of God from the craftily interwoven teachings of men. And the result is that inconsistent and unsound interpretations have been handed down from generation to generation, and received as if they were integral parts of the Scriptures themselves;...
Now, this explanation of how men's ideas get interwoven into our understanding of what the Scriptures really say is directed towards his understanding of the creation event and so he concludes:
...while any texts which seem violently opposed were allegorized, spiritualized, or explained away, till they ceased to be troublesome, or perchance, were even made subservient.
So, this is what I strive to separate when studying the Scriptures and attempting to understand what God is telling me. In this 'Jesus is God' discussion, we have some very distinct teachings that can be gleaned from the words of the Scriptures.
Jesus is God's Son. This relationship between Jesus and God is repeated literally dozens of times in the new covenant writings.
God is Jesus' Father. This relationship is also repeated multiple times in the new covenant writings.
In nearly every introduction of his letters, Paul writes greetings to those he is addressing and clearly separates who he is writing to them on behalf of. In his letter to the Romans he holds out a clear separation between who God is and who Jesus is:
Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle and set apart for the gospel of God—the gospel he promised beforehand through his prophets in the Holy Scriptures regarding his Son, who as to his earthly life was a descendant of David, and who through the Spirit of holiness was appointed the Son of God in power by his resurrection from the dead: Jesus Christ our Lord. Romans 1:1-4
In his first letter to the Corinthian believers Paul also separates that there is God and there is Jesus:
Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. 1 Corinthians 1:3
In 2 Corinthians 1:2 he addresses his reader in the exact same way. In his opening salutation to the believers in Galatia he makes even more clear that Jesus is under the authority of God:
Paul, an apostle—sent not from men nor by a man, but by Jesus Christ and God the Father, who raised him from the dead...Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ, who gave himself for our sins to rescue us from the present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father,
to whom be glory for ever and ever. Amen.
As I said, nearly all of Paul's letters begin this way. I can't imagine that it isn't clear to us that Paul, at least, seemed to hold some separation between who God is and who Jesus is.
The book of Hebrews goes into even greater detail concerning this apparent separation between God and Jesus:
In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe. The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of his being, sustaining all things by his powerful word. After he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven. So he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs.
Clearly the writer of Hebrews is telling us that there is a separate and distinct personage who now sits at the right hand of the Majesty (God) in heaven. That one is our Lord and Savior, Jesus. There is also another possibly important teaching in this passage of Hebrews that honestly, I would have to research further to have any assurance that it is saying what it seems to be saying:
So he became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs. Is this possibly actually telling us that after he had provided purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty in heaven and then became as much superior to the angels as the name he has inherited is superior to theirs? Did this that he became proceed from the process and completion of his providing purification for sin? Now, I don't wish to derail my purpose in this post, but depending on the accuracy of translators, that would seem to be what this passage in the writings of Hebrews seems to be making. What are we to understand from this phrase 'So he became'?
Then we move to other writers of the new covenant. James opens his letter:
James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ...
Peter opens his letter:
Praise be to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ!
John in his letter:
The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us. We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son, Jesus Christ.
So, it seems clear to me that the first apostles seemed to define and understand that there was some separation in who God is and who Jesus is.
On the other side of the discussion there are some apparent evidences that Jesus made some statements that could be construed that He was God, but they aren't as clear as these previous evidences that I've pulled from the apostles' writings.
At one point, when Jesus was challenged on his claim of having known Abraham, he answers his challengers by saying that before Abraham was, I am. This was, according to the Scriptures themselves, one of the chief reasons that the Jews came to decide that he had to die for such blasphemy and to refer to himself as God. But, is that what he was telling them?
We know, through the Scriptures, that Jesus also existed before Abraham. But, we also know that there is a record in the Scriptures that Jesus claimed that the words he spoke were not his own, but were given to him by the Father. He clearly said that the words I speak are not my own.
The words I say to you I do not speak on my own authority. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. John 14:10
Is it therefore possible, that when Jesus replied to them "I am", that it was the Father living in him that caused him to speak those words just as he claimed to his disciples that it was the Father living in him that caused him to speak the words he spoke to them? I'm simply saying that our using this reference of the Scriptures to make some claim that Jesus is God, could well be the same error that the Jews thought those words meant that brought about Jesus' death. Now, I'm not saying that our believing the same thing about these words is also tantamount to our causing Jesus' death, but that in this instance it does seem to have been a great cause for error to the Jews, also.
Try out this possible explanation for Jesus' words. Jesus is standing before this group of people with the Spirit of God within him that, according to his own testimony, is giving him the words that proceed from his mouth. They challenge him on his claim that he existed before Abraham. God's Spirit directs Jesus to say to them in order to prove the authority and person of the one who is actually speaking to them, say to them, "I tell you that before Abraham, I Am!" So, this is God's Spirit speaking through His Son saying something like, "Listen guys. You want to know who you're dealing with here and how long I've been around? Well here's how you will know in the same way that I told Moses to let the first Israelites know who was sending him. Son, say to them that I Am and they will realize that just as I sent Moses with that testimony to identify to the Israelites who was sending him, I am likewise using those same words to identity to this bunch of stiff-necked people who sent you.
That's just a possible explanation, of course, but it does have a certain fitment and is exactly how God told Moses to identify Him to the Israelites 1,000 years before. But, as seems so clear to me, the first apostles didn't seem to have this Jesus is God understanding that we try to push around today. So, for me, Jesus is God's Son and God is his Father. Jesus is the servant that Isaiah wrote of. This also would explain more easily how Jesus could die for our sins, but God cannot. God cannot die. So if there's a need for death to ransom sinners, then God couldn't have provided it through His own death. God cannot die!
God bless,
In Christ, ted
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